Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril
Last Answer : A. Nifedipine
Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Maximal medical therapy for treating angina pectoris is represented by which of the following choices? (a) Diltiazem, verapamil, nitroglycerin (b) Atenolol, isoproterenol, diltiazem (c) Verapamil, nifedipine, propranolol (d) Isosorbide, atenolol, diltiazem (e) Nitroglycerin, isosorbide, atenolol
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to ... ) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over - the - counter decongestants
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : A drug lacking vasodilator properties that is useful in angina is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) Metoprolol (c) NIfedipine (d) Nitroglycerin (e) Verapamil
Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Dipyridamole (c) Propranolol (d) Diltiazem
Description : What drug is used to prevent embolism in the lung and during myocardial infarction? (a) Alteplase (b) Human growth hormone (c) Granulocyte–macrophage colony – stimulating factor (GM–CSF) (d) EPOGEN (EPO) (e) None of the above
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate
Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil
Last Answer : B. Nifedipine
Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion
Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Myocardial oxygen demand is increased by all of the following factors except (a) Exercise (b) Smoking (c) Cold temperatures (d) Isoproterenol (e) Propranolol
Description : Which of the following agents has a direct effect on the AV mode, delaying calciumchannel depolarization? (a) Lidocaine (b) Diltiazem (c) Bretylium (d) Quinidine (e) Lbutilide
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol
Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias
Description : Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina
Description : Which of the following drugs is preferred for termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (a) Digoxin (b) Quinidine (c) Propranolol (d) Verapamil
Description : Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases cardiac contractility? (a) Digoxin (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Quinidine (e) Verapamil
Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C
Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive ... sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism
Last Answer : Answer: c, e Gram-negative bacterial sepsis is a serious disease process that produces substantial morbidity and mortality in both normal and immunocompromised patients (10% to 20% and ... and most investigators agree that polymicrobial sepsis is more lethal than infection with a single organism
Description : Which of the following agents used in prinzmetal’s angina has spasmolytic actions, which increase coronary blood supply? (a) Nitroglycerin (b) Nifedipine (c) Timolol (d) Isosorbide mononitrate (e) Propranolol
Description : Which of the following cardiovascular agents is classified chemically as a glycoside? (a) Nifedipine (b) Digoxin (c) Flecainide (d) Cholestyramine (e) Warfarin
Description : Use of anticoagulants in acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces short-term mortality B. Prevents thrombus extension and subsequent attack C. Prevents venous thromboembolism D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Prevents venous thromboembolism
Description : Thrombolytic therapy instituted within 3-6 hours of onset of acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces mortality B. Reduces area of myocardial necrosis C. Preserves ventricular function D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : In a patient of myocardial infarction, β adrenergic blockers are used with the following aim/aims: A. To reduce the incidence of reinfarction B. To prevent cardiac arrhythmias C. To limit size of the infarct D. All of the above
Description : Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Persistent dry cough may occur as a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Enalapril B. Atenolol C. Diltiazem D. Methyldopa
Last Answer : A. Enalapril
Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility
Description : Which of the following cyclotron produced radiopharmaceuticals is used for assessing regional myocardial perfusion as part of an exercise stress test? (a) Thallous chloride 201TI USP (b) Sodium iodide 123I (c) Gallium citrate 67Ga USP (d) Indium 111In pentetate (e) Cobalt 57Co cyanocobalamin
Description : Tolerance to nitroglycerin may be overcome by (a) Initially using the largest safe dose of the drug (b) Using other nitrites (c) Temporarily discontinuing the drug for one or two weeks (d) Use of higher doses (e) None of the above
Description : Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Clonidine B. Captopril C. Verapamil D. Prazosin
Last Answer : B. Captopril
Description : The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril
Last Answer : A. Clonidine
Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine
Last Answer : C. Flunarizine
Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Dipyridamole
Description : The slow moving fraction of LDH is typically increased in pancreas with (A) Cerebrovascular accidents (B) Acute myocardial infarction (C) Acute pancreatitis (D) Acute viral hepatits
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : The isozyme CK-MB is specifically increased in the blood of patients who had (A) Skeletal muscle disease (B) Recent myocardial infarction (C) Infective hepatitis (D) Myxoedema
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : Increased serum ornithine carabamoyl transferase activity is diagnostic of (A) Myocardial infarction (B) Hemolytic jaundice (C) Bone disease (D) Acute viral hepatitis
Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial ... vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment
Last Answer : The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is: A. Ethinylestradiol B. Estradiol benzoate C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Conjugated estrogens
Description : Started within 4-6 hours of acute myocardial infarction, which of the following drug(s) can reduce the area of necrosis and the attendant mortality: A. Propranolol B. Glyceryl trinitrate C. Lignocaine D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Last Answer : C. Verapami
Description : The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia
Last Answer : C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia
Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet
Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule
Description : Frequency dependent cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by: A. Verapamil B. Nifedipine C. Felodipine D. Amlodipin
Last Answer : A. Verapamil
Description : Six months after beginning atorvastatin, the patient's total and LDL cholesterol concentrations remained above normal and he continued to have anginal attacks despite good adherence to his antianginal ... Increased endocytosis of HDL by the liver (e) Increased lipid hydrolysis by lipoprotein lipase
Description : Increased serum levels of which of the following may be associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis? (a) Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) (b) Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) (c) Intermediate – density lipoproteins (IDL) (d) High-density lipoproteins (HDL) (e) Cholesterol
Description : The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack (a) Digoxin (b) Furosemide (c) Enalapril (d) Amrinone
Description : Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension ... (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia