Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life
Last Answer : A. Generation of an active metabolit
Description : Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral ... so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio
Last Answer : D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio
Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance
Last Answer : D. Total body clearance
Last Answer : D. Total body clearanc
Description : Drugs which undergo high degree of first-pass metabolism in liver: A. Have low oral bioavailability B. Are excreted primarily in bile C. Are contraindicated in liver disease D. Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination
Last Answer : A. Have low oral bioavailability
Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption
Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life
Description : Which of the following is not a primary/fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter: A. Bioavailability B. Volume of distribution C. Clearance D. Plasma half life
Last Answer : D. Plasma half life
Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Glyceryl trinitrate is administratered by all of the following routes except (a) Oral (b) Sublingual (c) Intramuscular (d) Intravenous
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : A patient on oral anticoagulant therapy is commenced on sulfamethoxazoletrimethoprim, double-strength twice daily. One may expect to see the international normalized ratio (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain unchanged
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : A patient to be commenced on oral anticoagulant therapy for DVT would be treated with (a) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal intenational normalized ration (INR) of 2-3 (b) Oral anticoagulant therapy ... of 2.5-3.5 (c) Oral anticoagulant therapy with aspirin for a goal INR of 2-3
Description : The oral absorption of following osmotic diuretic is negligible (a) Glycerin (b) Mannitol (c) Isosorbide (d) All of the above
Description : The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant
Last Answer : C. Volume of distribution
Description : The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling
Last Answer : B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine
Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin
Description : Teicoplanin has the following feature(s): A. Antimicrobial activity and indications similar to vancomycin B. Long elimination half-life C. Efficacy in systemic infections by oral route D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it ... erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine
Last Answer : A. Disopyramide
Description : When compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins have (a) Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa relative to Iia (thrombin) (b) Shorter half-lives (c) Dose – dependent renal clearance
Description : When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return
Description : The following statement is not true of carbamazepine: A. It generates an active metabolite B. Its plasma half life decreases to nearly half of the original value after chronic use C. It is being used in mania D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures
Last Answer : D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures
Description : Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine
Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine
Description : Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required
Last Answer : A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis
Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes
Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin
Description : To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have (a) High oral bioavailability (b) Low oral bioavailability (c) Additional bronchodilator activity (d) Prodrug character
Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed
Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules
Description : The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : 15.45 To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have: A. High oral bioavailability B. Low oral bioavailability C. Additional bronchodilator activity
Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability
Description : The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action
Last Answer : A. High oral bioavailability
Description : Dihydroergotamine (DHE) differs from ergotamine in the following respect: A. It is a more potent oxytocic B. It has antiemetic property C. It has high oral bioavailability D. It is a more potent α adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor
Last Answer : D. It is a more potent α adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor
Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response
Description : Increased serum levels of which of the following may be associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis? (a) Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) (b) Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) (c) Intermediate – density lipoproteins (IDL) (d) High-density lipoproteins (HDL) (e) Cholesterol
Description : The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine
Last Answer : B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria
Description : Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate? (a) It is bacteriostatic (b) It binds to PBPs (c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase (d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability (e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use
Description : Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug: A. Is freely water soluble B. Is completely absorbed C. Is incompletely absorbed D. Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
Last Answer : C. Is incompletely absorbed
Description : Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by: A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen B. Altering gut motility C. Altering gut flora D. Damaging gut mucosa
Last Answer : C. Altering gut flora
Description : Bioavailability of drug refers to: A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose C. Ratio of orally administered drug to ... in the faeces D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites
Last Answer : A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form
Description : Major lipid class present in chylomicrons is (a) Endogenous triglycerides (b) Cholesterol esters (c) Dietary triglycerides (d) All of the above
Description : Major beneficial effect of nitrates in classical angina is due to (a) Dilation of veins more than arteries (b) Increase in total coronary blood flow (c) An increase in the end diastolic size of the heart (d) An increase in the heart rate
Description : Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina
Description : Following statement is true about lidocaine (a) Reduce the slope of Phase 4 (b) Threshold excitability is not altered (c) Action potential is not affected (d) All of the above
Description : The agent given sublingually in an acute attack of angina pectoris is (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Amyl nitrite (c) Erythrital tetranitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
Description : Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation
Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility
Description : Cardiac glycosides are obtained from following plant source. (a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Strophanthus gratus (c) Ricinus commounts. (d) Atropa belladonna