Description : Ganciclovir is preferred over acyclovir in the following condition: A. Herpes simplex keratitis B. Herpes zoster C. Chickenpox D. Cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patient
Last Answer : D. Cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patients
Description : A history of infection specifically caused by group A betahemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders? a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is ... chronic glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple myeloma, and renal vein thrombosis.
Last Answer : a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.
Description : The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a ... is arrested if oral antiviral agents are administered within 24 hours of the initial eruption.
Last Answer : a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.
Description : ___________ means itching caused by dry skin, parasitic infection or disease. A. Scabies B. Herpes Zoster C. Pruritis
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : A Candida albicans infection of the intestine, vagina, or oral cavity are commonly treated with a. cefotaxime. b. vidarabine. c. streptomycin. d. nystatin.
Last Answer : d. nystatin.
Description : Select the correc: combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C : (A) Interferon with Ribavirin (B) Interferon with Zidovudine (C) Interferon with Stavudine (D) Interferon with Lamivudine
Last Answer : (B) Interferon with Zidovudine
Description : The causative micro organism for Herpetic gingivostomatitis is: A. Herpes simplex bacteria B. Herpes simplex virus C. Herpes zoster virus D. Borrelia vincentii
Last Answer : B. Herpes simplex virus
Description : Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir: A. Herpes simplex type I virus B. Herpes simplex type II virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D. Epstein-Barr virus
Last Answer : A. Herpes simplex type I virus
Description : Which of the following microorganisms is known to cause retinitis in people with HIV/AIDS? a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus. b) Cryptococcus neoformans Cryptococcus neoformans is ... is thought to be protozoan but believed to be a fungus based on its structure.
Last Answer : a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus.
Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis
Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex
Description : A newly married girl comes to gynae OPD with history of dysuria, burning, micturition and sore perineum. What is your likely diagnosis: a) Trichomonas vaginalis. b) Candida infection. c) Trauma due to coitus. d) Honey moon cystitis. e) Genital herpes.
Last Answer : d) Honey moon cystitis.
Description : Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia?** ADC M07 A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue B. Associated with HIV ... Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia
Last Answer : B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue C. Usually caused by Candida species
Description : Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of infectious agents through blood transfusions is/are true? A. The transmission rates for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) ... patients (such as patients undergoing transplantation) should receive specially screened blood products.
Last Answer : Answer: ABCD DISCUSSION: The incidence of both HIV and hepatitis transmitted via blood transfusions has been steadily decreasing since the 1980s. This is related to improved ... , severely compromised patients such as those undergoing transplantation should receive CMV-negative blood products
Description : Zidovudine inhibits the following virus/viruses: A. Human immunodeficiency virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis B virus D. Both 'A' and 'B'
Last Answer : A. Human immunodeficiency virus
Description : The fungus Candida albicans has been known to infect a. The human intestine. b. The mucous membranes of the oral cavity. c. The female vagina. d. All the above (a-c) are correct.
Last Answer : d. All the above (a-c) are correct.
Description : Which organism is found in the acidic vagina of women of reproductive age? a. Candida albicans b. Lactobacillus c. Escherichia coli. d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Last Answer : b. Lactobacillus
Description : The advantage of the silicone in soft relining material over ….. rubber is, A. Retains high flow B. Prevents the colonization of Candida albicans C. Resilient in long run D. Better bond strength
Last Answer : C. Resilient in long run
Description : The following organisms are frequently responsible for superinfections except: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Salmonella typhi C. Clostridium difficile D. Candida albicans
Last Answer : B. Salmonella typhi
Description : Identify the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum : (A.) Artemisinin (B) Primaquine (C) Quinine (D) Mefloquine
Last Answer : (B) Primaquine
Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for ... detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Although the classic detection of infection based on clinical signs of infection and bacterial culture remain the most common clinical tools, increasing ... including CMV and HIV. Furthermore, preliminary investigations into possible detection of fungal pathogens are underway
Description : Mononucleosis is an infection of________ cells by the _____. a. T; cytomegalovirus b. B; Epstein-Barr virus c. Lung; cytomegalovirus d. red blood; Epstein.Barr virus
Last Answer : d. red blood; Epstein.Barr virus
Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough
Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox
Description : Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus? (A) Lamivudine (B) Zidovudine (C) Indinavir (D) Ribavirin
Last Answer : (B) Zidovudine
Description : Herpes Zoster is most commonly known as: A. shingles B. an enlarged fever blister C. blue colored skin
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Iodoxuridine is indicated in: A. Herpes simplex keratitis B. Herpes zoster C. Chickenpox D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Herpes simplex keratitis
Description : Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because (A) it gets degraded in the GIT (B) it causes severe diarrhoea (C) it causes metallic taste in the mouth (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT
Last Answer : (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT
Description : Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive patients with Chronic myeloid Leukemia? (A) Pentostatin (B) Methotrexate (C) Imatinib (D) L-Asparaginase
Last Answer : (C) Imatinib
Description : Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following disorders : (A) Systolic hypertension (B) Unstable angina (C) Pulmonary hypertension (D) Hypertension due to eclampsia
Last Answer : (C) Pulmonary hypertension
Description : The ______ can cause serious birth defects including mental impairment. a. Mononucleosis b. Cytomegalovirus c. Polio d. Hepatitis C
Last Answer : a. Mononucleosis
Description : The most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States is a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Viral infection is the most common cause of encephalitis. HSV is the most common ... may cause fungal encephalitis. Fungal infections of the central nervous system occur rarely in healthy people.
Last Answer : a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Viral infection is the most common cause of encephalitis. HSV is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the U.S.
Description : Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir
Last Answer : B. Foscarnet
Description : Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed by the use of polymerase chain reaction? A- HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses B- Hepatitis B virus C- Mycobacterium tuberculosis D- All of these
Last Answer : All of these
Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally
Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients
Description : Which one of the following is a false statement about atopic eczema? a) It commonly begins by drug reaction. b) Super-added herpes simplex infection is a serious complication. c) The serum IgE ... . d) The skin lesions are typically itchy. e) Treatment with systemic steroids is often necessary.
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled
Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated
Description : In which of the following techniques the sample is kept below triple point? (A) Lyophilization (B) Spray drying (C) Spray congealing (D) Centrifugation
Last Answer : (A) Lyophilization
Description : Which one of the following is NOT an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India? (A) The Director General of Health Services (B) The Director of Central Drugs Laboratory (C) The Drugs Controller General of India (D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory
Last Answer : (D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory
Description : It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be (A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 30 mg (D) 60 mg
Last Answer : (B) 300 mg
Description : The Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be (A)10 L (B) 100 L (C) 1.0 L (D) 0.10 L
Last Answer : (A)10 L
Description : How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 liters of 1:2000 w/v solution? (A) 750 mL (B) 1000 mL (c) 1250 mL (D) 1500 mL
Last Answer : (c) 1250 mL
Description : Class 100 area is referred to (A) Manufacturing area (B) Aseptic area (C) Clean room (D) Ware house
Last Answer : (B) Aseptic area
Description : Geriatric population should be included in the following Phase of clinical trials (A) Phase I (B) Phase II (C) Phase III (D) Phase
Last Answer : (B) Phase II
Description : A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is : (A) 125% (B) 250 % (C) 12.5% (D) 1.25%
Last Answer : (C) 12.5%
Description : Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using (A) Sheep blood (B) Mice lymph (C) Horse plasma (D) Fertile eggs
Last Answer : (D) Fertile eggs
Description : In nail polish, following polymer is used as a film-former : (A) Nitrocellulose (B) Polylactic acid (C) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (D) Cellulose acetate phthalate
Last Answer : (A) Nitrocellulose
Description : Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by (A) first order kinetics (B)second order kinetics (C) zero order kinetics (D) non-linear kinetics
Last Answer : (C) zero order kinetics
Description : The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure : (A) cc-Chymotrypsin (B) Hemoglobin (C) Insulin (D) Myoglobin
Last Answer : (B) Hemoglobin
Description : Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to (A) increase their biological activity (B) increase their disposition in lipophilic compartments of the body (C) increase their aqueous solubility (D) all of the above
Last Answer : (D) all of the above
Description : The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as : (A) temperature between 8°C and 25°C (B) temperature below 20 C (C) temperature at 0°C (D) temperature between 2c C and S: C
Last Answer : (D) temperature between 2c C and S: C
Description : Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate (A) bi-exponentially (B) tri-exponentially (C) non-exponentially (D) mono-exponentially
Last Answer : (D) mono-exponentially