RB 1 gene is (A) A tumour suppressor gene (B) Oncogene (C) Proto-oncogene (D) Activated proto-oncogene

RB 1 gene is (A) A tumour suppressor gene (B) Oncogene (C) Proto-oncogene (D) Activated proto-oncogene
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P 53 gene: (A) A proto-oncogene (B) An oncogene (C) A tumour suppressor gene (D) None of these

Description : P 53 gene: (A) A proto-oncogene (B) An oncogene (C) A tumour suppressor gene (D) None of these

Last Answer : Answer : C

Retinoblastoma can result from a mutation in (A) ras proto-oncogene (B) erbB proto-oncogene (C) p 53 gene (D) RB 1 gene

Description : Retinoblastoma can result from a mutation in (A) ras proto-oncogene (B) erbB proto-oncogene (C) p 53 gene (D) RB 1 gene

Last Answer : Answer : D

Ras proto-oncogene is converted into oncogene by (A) A point mutation (B) Chromosomal translocation (C) Insertion of a viral promoter upstream of the gene (D) Gene amplification

Description : Ras proto-oncogene is converted into oncogene by (A) A point mutation (B) Chromosomal translocation (C) Insertion of a viral promoter upstream of the gene (D) Gene amplification

Last Answer : Answer : A

True statements about p53 include: a. a protein coded by a tumour suppressor gene b. it suppresses mitosis c. it is important regulators of apoptosis d. all above

Description : True statements about p53 include: a. a protein coded by a tumour suppressor gene b. it suppresses mitosis c. it is important regulators of apoptosis d. all above

Last Answer : all above

Ras proto-oncogene encodes (A) Epidermal growth factor (EGF) (B) Receptor for EGF (C) Signal transducer for EGF (D) Nuclear transcription factor

Description : Ras proto-oncogene encodes (A) Epidermal growth factor (EGF) (B) Receptor for EGF (C) Signal transducer for EGF (D) Nuclear transcription factor

Last Answer : Answer : C

All the following statements about retino blastoma are true except (A) At least two mutations are required for its development (B) One mutation can be inherited from a parent (C) Children who have inherited one mutation develop retinoblastoma at a younger age (D) RB 1 gene promotes the development of retinoblastoma

Description : All the following statements about retino blastoma are true except (A) At least two mutations are required for its development (B) One mutation can be inherited from a parent (C) Children ... mutation develop retinoblastoma at a younger age (D) RB 1 gene promotes the development of retinoblastoma

Last Answer : Answer : D

G-proteins: a. are activated by the binding of an extracellular ligand to a membrane receptor b. can be mutated in tumour cells c. mediate the action of glucocorticoid hormone d. they are inactivated by cholera toxins

Description : G-proteins: a. are activated by the binding of an extracellular ligand to a membrane receptor b. can be mutated in tumour cells c. mediate the action of glucocorticoid hormone d. they are inactivated by cholera toxins

Last Answer : are activated by the binding of an extracellular ligand to a membrane receptor

In many types of cancer, proteins that are crucial regulators of the cell cycle are often mutated and cannot function correctly. This leads to the evasion of apoptosis and to the loss of control of cell proliferation? For example, many cancer cells carry two mutant copies of the gene that codes for a tumor suppressor protein named p53. What is the normal function of p53 that is lost when it is mutated?

Description : In many types of cancer, proteins that are crucial regulators of the cell cycle are often mutated and cannot function correctly. This leads to the evasion of apoptosis and to the loss of control of cell ... protein named p53. What is the normal function of p53 that is lost when it is mutated?

Last Answer : Normally, p53 senses DNA damage and acts as a transcription factor for checkpoint control genes.

Suppressor tRNAs can neutralize the effects of mutations in (A) Structural genes (B) Promoter regions (C) Enhancer elements(D) All of these

Description : Suppressor tRNAs can neutralize the effects of mutations in (A) Structural genes (B) Promoter regions (C) Enhancer elements(D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : A

Suppressor mutations occur in (A) Structural genes (B) Promoter regions (C) Silencer elements (D) Anticodons of tRNA

Description : Suppressor mutations occur in (A) Structural genes (B) Promoter regions (C) Silencer elements (D) Anticodons of tRNA

Last Answer : Answer : D

A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in organ transplantation as a suppressor of immunologic rejection of grafts is (A) Theophylline (B) Cytarabine (C) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (D) 6-Mercaptopurine

Description : A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in organ transplantation as a suppressor of immunologic rejection of grafts is (A) Theophylline (B) Cytarabine (C) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (D) 6-Mercaptopurine

Last Answer : Answer : D

CD 4 is a transmembrane glycoprotein present in (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells

Description : CD 4 is a transmembrane glycoprotein present in (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells

Last Answer : Answer : A

CD 8 is a transmembrane glycoprotein present in (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells

Description : CD 8 is a transmembrane glycoprotein present in (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells

Last Answer : Answer : C

MHC Class II proteins, in conjunction with antigens, are recognised by (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells

Description : MHC Class II proteins, in conjunction with antigens, are recognised by (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells

Last Answer : Answer : B

MHC class I proteins, in conjunction with antigens are recognised by (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells

Description : MHC class I proteins, in conjunction with antigens are recognised by (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells

Last Answer : Answer : A

The most abundant T cells are (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells

Description : The most abundant T cells are (A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) Helper T cells (C) Suppressor T cells (D) Memory T cells

Last Answer : Answer : B

Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This protein (a) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it (b) is coded by several genes including the gene cry (c) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest (d) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin.

Description : Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This protein (a) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it (b) is coded by several ... pest (d) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin.

Last Answer : (a) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it

Proto-oncogens are present in (A) Oncoviruses (B) Cancer cells (C) Healthy human cells (D) Prokaryotes

Description : Proto-oncogens are present in (A) Oncoviruses (B) Cancer cells (C) Healthy human cells (D) Prokaryotes

Last Answer : Answer : C

Diabetes mellitus can occur due to all of the following except (A) Deficient insulin secretion (B) Tumour of β−cells (C) Decrease in number of insulin receptors (D) Formation of insulin antibodies

Description : Diabetes mellitus can occur due to all of the following except (A) Deficient insulin secretion (B) Tumour of β−cells (C) Decrease in number of insulin receptors (D) Formation of insulin antibodies

Last Answer : Answer : B

In Cushing’s syndrome-a tumour associated disease of adrenal cortex, there is (A) Decreased epinephrine production (B) Excessive cortisol production (C) Excessive epinephrine production (D) Decreased cortsoil production

Description : In Cushing’s syndrome-a tumour associated disease of adrenal cortex, there is (A) Decreased epinephrine production (B) Excessive cortisol production (C) Excessive epinephrine production (D) Decreased cortsoil production

Last Answer : Answer : B

B.M.R. is subnormal in (A) Addison’s disease (B) Adrenal tumour (C) Cushing’s syndrome (D) Fever

Description : B.M.R. is subnormal in (A) Addison’s disease (B) Adrenal tumour (C) Cushing’s syndrome (D) Fever

Last Answer : Answer : A

Helper T cells release all the following except (A) Interleukins (B) Colony stimulating factors (C) Perforins (D) Tumour necrosis factor

Description : Helper T cells release all the following except (A) Interleukins (B) Colony stimulating factors (C) Perforins (D) Tumour necrosis factor

Last Answer : Answer : C

Helper T cells release (A) Interleukins (B) Colony stimulating factors (C) Tumour necrosis factor (D) All of these

Description : Helper T cells release (A) Interleukins (B) Colony stimulating factors (C) Tumour necrosis factor (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : B

Cytotoxic T cells release (A) Perforins (B) Interleukins (C) Colony stimulating factors (D) Tumour necrosis factor

Description : Cytotoxic T cells release (A) Perforins (B) Interleukins (C) Colony stimulating factors (D) Tumour necrosis factor

Last Answer : Answer : B

What are the enzymes useful as tumour markers?

Description : What are the enzymes useful as tumour markers?

Last Answer : Regan iso-enzyme of ALP for lung tumour; tartarate labile iso-enzyme of ACP and Prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostate carcinoma; Neuron specific enolase (NSE) for cancers of neuro-endocrine origin.

Why do oncogene acts as though it is stuck in the on position?

Description : Why do oncogene acts as though it is stuck in the on position?

Last Answer : Feel Free to Answer

Which of the following belong to the family of C-X-C chemokines? a. IL-8 b. IL-10 c. Growth Related Oncogene-a d. Leukotreine B4 e. b Thromboglobulin

Description : Which of the following belong to the family of C-X-C chemokines? a. IL-8 b. IL-10 c. Growth Related Oncogene-a d. Leukotreine B4 e. b Thromboglobulin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, e A particularly important group of novel chemotactic cytokines has been elucidated over the last decade. Twelve are known and are listed below. C-X-C ... in vivo cytokine networks involving these molecules which regulate chemotaxis, and other fundamental aspects of inflammation

Rivers' postulates can be used toa. locate an oncogene in a cell that is cancerous. b. develop inactivated viruses for use in a vaccine. c. eliminate viruses with certain chemical agents. d. relate a particular virus to a particular disease.

Description : Rivers' postulates can be used to a. locate an oncogene in a cell that is cancerous. b. develop inactivated viruses for use in a vaccine. c. eliminate viruses with certain chemical agents. d. relate a particular virus to a particular disease.

Last Answer : d. relate a particular virus to a particular disease.

The oncogene theory states that transforming genes a. Normally Occur In The Host Genome. b. Can Exist In Viruses. c. Are Not Of Viral Origin. d. All Of The Above (A—C) Are Correct.

Description : The oncogene theory states that transforming genes a. Normally Occur In The Host Genome. b. Can Exist In Viruses. c. Are Not Of Viral Origin. d. All Of The Above (A—C) Are Correct.

Last Answer : d. All Of The Above (A—C) Are Correct

For which disease is Oncogene responsible?

Description : For which disease is Oncogene responsible?

Last Answer : Cancer

Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna. A. Low-pass filter B. High-pass filter C. M-derived filter D. Constant-K

Description : Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna. A. Low-pass filter B. High-pass filter C. M-derived filter D. Constant-K

Last Answer : A. Low-pass filter

Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna. A. High pass filter B. Low pass filter C. Tank circuit D. M-derived filter

Description : Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna. A. High pass filter B. Low pass filter C. Tank circuit D. M-derived filter

Last Answer : B. Low pass filter

What type of immune cell may control IgE-mediated hypersensitivities? a. Suppressor T cells b. Plasma cells c. Cytotoxic T cells d. Neutrophils

Description : What type of immune cell may control IgE-mediated hypersensitivities? a. Suppressor T cells b. Plasma cells c. Cytotoxic T cells d. Neutrophils

Last Answer : a. Suppressor T cells

Echo suppressor is detrimental to full duplex operation because (A) It disables one of the two pairs in a four-wire trunk line when a signal is detected on the other pair. (B) It enables one of the two pairs in a four-wire trunk line when a signal is detected on the other pair. (C) It activates both the pairs of a four-wire trunk line. (D) It is independent of line conditions.

Description : Echo suppressor is detrimental to full duplex operation because (A) It disables one of the two pairs in a four-wire trunk line when a signal is detected on the other pair. (B) It enables one of the ... It activates both the pairs of a four-wire trunk line. (D) It is independent of line conditions.

Last Answer : (A) It disables one of the two pairs in a four-wire trunk line when a signal is detected on the other pair.

The suppressor grid is added to a tetrode to reduce what undesirable characteristic of tetrode operation?

Description : The suppressor grid is added to a tetrode to reduce what undesirable characteristic of tetrode operation?

Last Answer : Secondary emission.

What are the three elements of a bipolar transistor? Are they the: w) grid, plate, cathode x) suppressor, deflector, target y) energizer, controller, terminus z) emitter, base, collector

Description : What are the three elements of a bipolar transistor? Are they the: w) grid, plate, cathode x) suppressor, deflector, target y) energizer, controller, terminus z) emitter, base, collector

Last Answer : ANSWER: Z -- EMITTER, BASE, COLLECTOR

The given figure shows a circle with centre O in which a diameter AB bisects the chord PQ at the point R. If PR = RQ = 8 cm and RB = 4 cm, then find the radius of the circle. -Maths 9th

Description : The given figure shows a circle with centre O in which a diameter AB bisects the chord PQ at the point R. If PR = RQ = 8 cm and RB = 4 cm, then find the radius of the circle. -Maths 9th

Last Answer : Let r be the radius, then OQ = OB = r and OR = (r - 4) ∴ OQ2 = OR2 + RO2 ⇒ r2 = 64 + (r-4)2 ⇒ r2 = 64 + r2 + 16 - 8r ⇒ 8r = 80 ⇒ r = 10 cm

The given figure shows a circle with centre O in which a diameter AB bisects the chord PQ at the point R. If PR = RQ = 8 cm and RB = 4 cm, then find the radius of the circle. -Maths 9th

Description : The given figure shows a circle with centre O in which a diameter AB bisects the chord PQ at the point R. If PR = RQ = 8 cm and RB = 4 cm, then find the radius of the circle. -Maths 9th

Last Answer : Let r be the radius, then OQ = OB = r and OR = (r - 4) ∴ OQ2 = OR2 + RO2 ⇒ r2 = 64 + (r-4)2 ⇒ r2 = 64 + r2 + 16 - 8r ⇒ 8r = 80 ⇒ r = 10 cm

Let R be a relation defined as a Rb if | a – b | > 0, then the relation is -Maths 9th

Description : Let R be a relation defined as a Rb if | a – b | > 0, then the relation is -Maths 9th

Last Answer : (d) Symmetric and transitive| a - a | = | 0 | = 0 so (a, a) ∉R ⇒ R is not reflexive(a, b) ∈ R ⇒ | a - b | > 0 ⇒ | b - a | > 0 ⇒ (b, a) ∈R (∵ | a - b | = | b - a |) ⇒ R is symmetric (a, b) ∈ R ... a, b, c. ∴ | a - b | > 0 and | b - c | > 0 ⇒ | a - c | > 0 ⇒ (a, c) ∈ R ⇒ R is transitive.

RB Ewwwwf?

Description : RB Ewwwwf?

Last Answer : h

What is the atomic number of Rb ?

Description : What is the atomic number of Rb ?

Last Answer : The atomic number of Rb is 37

Rb In which group ?

Description : Rb In which group ?

Last Answer : Rb 1 in group no.

What is the full form of RB ?

Last Answer : Rebit of RB - Reckitt Benckiser. This is a company in the United Kingdom.

In the neutron`-`induced fissioin reaction of `._(92)U^(235)` one of the products if `._(37)Rb^(95),` in this mode, another nuclide and three neutrons

Description : In the neutron`-`induced fissioin reaction of `._(92)U^(235)` one of the products if `._(37)Rb^(95),` in this mode, another nuclide and three neutrons

Last Answer : In the neutron`-`induced fissioin reaction of `._(92)U^(235)` one of the products if `._(37)Rb^(95),` in this ... `._(55)^(145)Co` D. `._(54)^(143)Xe`

Who can help me with this problem Rank the following elements by electron affinity from most positive to most negative I have the elements Ar Cl O Sb and Rb?

Description : Who can help me with this problem Rank the following elements by electron affinity from most positive to most negative I have the elements Ar Cl O Sb and Rb?

Last Answer : The order is: O, Cl, Sb, Rb, Ar.

Following players scored triple century twice in test cricket history: A. Don Bradman (Australia), Chris Gayle (West Indies), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) B. Don Bradman (Australia), Tendulkar (India), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) C. Don Bradman (Australia), Jaysuria (SriLanka), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) D. Hanif Mohammad (Pakistan), RB Simpson (Australia), Hashim Amla (South Africa)

Description : Following players scored triple century twice in test cricket history: A. Don Bradman (Australia), Chris Gayle (West Indies), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) B. Don Bradman (Australia), ... (West Indies) D. Hanif Mohammad (Pakistan), RB Simpson (Australia), Hashim Amla (South Africa)

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

Following players scored triple century twice in test cricket history: A. Don Bradman (Australia), Chris Gayle (West Indies), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) B. Don Bradman (Australia), Tendulkar (India), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) C. Don Bradman (Australia), Jaysuria (SriLanka), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) D. Hanif Mohammad (Pakistan), RB Simpson (Australia), Hashim Amla (South Africa)

Description : Following players scored triple century twice in test cricket history: A. Don Bradman (Australia), Chris Gayle (West Indies), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) B. Don Bradman (Australia), ... (West Indies) D. Hanif Mohammad (Pakistan), RB Simpson (Australia), Hashim Amla (South Africa)

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

Following players scored triple century twice in test cricket history: A. Don Bradman (Australia), Chris Gayle (West Indies), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) B. Don Bradman (Australia), Tendulkar (India), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) C. Don Bradman (Australia), Jaysuria (SriLanka), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) D. Hanif Mohammad (Pakistan), RB Simpson (Australia), Hashim Amla (South Africa)

Description : Following players scored triple century twice in test cricket history: A. Don Bradman (Australia), Chris Gayle (West Indies), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) B. Don Bradman (Australia), ... (West Indies) D. Hanif Mohammad (Pakistan), RB Simpson (Australia), Hashim Amla (South Africa)

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

Following players scored triple century twice in test cricket history: A. Don Bradman (Australia), Chris Gayle (West Indies), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) B. Don Bradman (Australia), Tendulkar (India), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) C. Don Bradman (Australia), Jaysuria (SriLanka), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) D. Hanif Mohammad (Pakistan), RB Simpson (Australia), Hashim Amla (South Africa)

Description : Following players scored triple century twice in test cricket history: A. Don Bradman (Australia), Chris Gayle (West Indies), Sehwag (India), Brian Lara (West Indies) B. Don Bradman (Australia), ... (West Indies) D. Hanif Mohammad (Pakistan), RB Simpson (Australia), Hashim Amla (South Africa)

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

In the illustration, the small battery and Rb are in the circuit to apply ________. EL-0022 A. forward bias to the emitter-base B. reverse bias to the emitter-base C. a 'reference charge' on the input capacitor D. a buffer between the input ground and the emitter ground

Description : In the illustration, the small battery and Rb are in the circuit to apply ________. EL-0022 A. forward bias to the emitter-base B. reverse bias to the emitter-base C. a 'reference charge' on the input capacitor D. a buffer between the input ground and the emitter ground

Last Answer : Answer: A