True or False "Use" is defined under HIPAA as the release of information containing PHI outside of the covered entity (CE).?

True or False "Use" is defined under HIPAA as the release of information containing PHI outside of the covered entity (CE).?
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FALSE
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An incidental use or disclosure is not a violation of the HIPAA Privacy Rule if the covered entity (CE) has:?

Description : An incidental use or disclosure is not a violation of the HIPAA Privacy Rule if the covered entity (CE) has:?

Last Answer : all the above

If an individual believes that a DoD covered entity (CE) is not complying with HIPAA, he or she may file a complaint with the:?

Description : If an individual believes that a DoD covered entity (CE) is not complying with HIPAA, he or she may file a complaint with the:?

Last Answer : all the above

Release of Information Question - For all those who ae HIPAA knowledgable?

Description : Release of Information Question - For all those who ae HIPAA knowledgable?

Last Answer : Yes, you can limit the information that is shared in a release of information form. For example, if someone is HIV positive, they can choose to not release that information (that has been my ... and cannot be released. Other groups may use more paired down forms which is where the confusion lies.

Which of the following is correct concerning requirements about auditor's communications about fraud? a. Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the audit committee regardless of the amounts involved. b. All fraud with a material effect on the financial statements should be reported directly by the auditor to the SEC c. Fraud with a material effect on the financial statements should ordinarily be disclosed by the auditor through the use of an emphasis of a matter paragraph added to the audit report. d. The auditor has no responsibility to disclose fraud outside the entity under any circumstances

Description : Which of the following is correct concerning requirements about auditor's communications about fraud? a. Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the audit committee ... . The auditor has no responsibility to disclose fraud outside the entity under any circumstances

Last Answer : Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the audit committee regardless of the amounts involved

<Condition>isa__ expression which will have value true or false. a. Relational b. Logical ce. Botha&b d. None of these

Description : isa__ expression which will have value true or false. a. Relational b. Logical ce. Botha&b d. None of these

Last Answer : ce. Botha&b

Who claimed the website Healthcare.gov was HIPAA compliant?

Description : Who claimed the website Healthcare.gov was HIPAA compliant?

Last Answer : HIPAA

Is hipaa training a long process?

Description : Is hipaa training a long process?

Last Answer : Hipaa training is a one to two hour process that can be done online. Training does not have to be done in one sitting, but there is a final exam that requires about 15 minutes.

If `alpha, beta` are the roots of the equation `x^2 + (sin phi -1)x-1/2 cos^2 phi = 0 (phi in R),` then the maximum value of the sum of the squares of

Description : If `alpha, beta` are the roots of the equation `x^2 + (sin phi -1)x-1/2 cos^2 phi = 0 (phi in R),` then the maximum value of the sum of the squares of

Last Answer : If `alpha, beta` are the roots of the equation `x^2 + (sin phi -1)x-1/2 cos^2 phi = 0 (phi in R),` then ... the roots is. A. 4 B. 3 C. `9//4` D. 2

Let `theta ,phi in [0,2pi]` be such that `2 cos theta (1-sin phi)=sin^2 theta ((tan)theta/2+(cot)theta/2) cos phi -1, tan(2pi-theta) &gt; 0 and -1 &lt

Description : Let `theta ,phi in [0,2pi]` be such that `2 cos theta (1-sin phi)=sin^2 theta ((tan)theta/2+(cot)theta/2) cos phi -1, tan(2pi-theta) > 0 and -1 <

Last Answer : Let `theta ,phi in [0,2pi]` be such that `2 cos theta (1-sin phi)=sin^2 theta ((tan)theta/2+(cot)theta/2) ... (3pi)/(2)` D. `(3pi)/(2) lt phi lt 2pi`

Find Power set of the set `A={phi,{phi}}`.

Description : Find Power set of the set `A={phi,{phi}}`.

Last Answer : Find Power set of the set `A={phi,{phi}}`.

Is Terry Starks a member of Phi Beta Sigma?

Description : Is Terry Starks a member of Phi Beta Sigma?

Last Answer : Answers is the place to go to get the answers you need and to ask the questions you want

Consider the following statements and identify the right ones i. The Oxford PHI publishes Human Development Report ii. The HDR is published biennially. a. I only b. ii only c. both d. none

Description : Consider the following statements and identify the right ones i. The Oxford PHI publishes Human Development Report ii. The HDR is published biennially. a. I only b. ii only c. both d. none

Last Answer : d. none

The term missing in the following equation (kVA) 2 = (kVA cos phi) 2 + ( ? )2 is a) cos phi b) sin phi c) kVA sin phi d) kVArh

Description : The term missing in the following equation (kVA) 2 = (kVA cos phi) 2 + ( ? )2 is a) cos phi b) sin phi c) kVA sin phi d) kVArh

Last Answer : c) kVA sin phi

. Match List I (Original Rock) with List II (Metamorphic Rock) and select the correct answer using the code given below: L i st I L i st I I (Or i gi nal Rock ) (Met amor phi c Rock ) A. Granite I. Diamond B. Coal II. Marble C. Limestone III. Slate D. Shale IV. Gneiss (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Description : . Match List I (Original Rock) with List II (Metamorphic Rock) and select the correct answer using the code given below: L i st I L i st I I (Or i gi nal Rock ) (Met amor phi c Rock ) A. Granite I. Diamond B. Coal II. Marble C. ... II, C-IV, D-I (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Last Answer : (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

The equation, X = A cos(wt + f) (read: X equals A times the cosine of omega t + phi (fee)), can represent an expression for: w) accelerating due to gravity x) uniform straight line motion y) dc current z) a simple harmonic oscillator

Description : The equation, X = A cos(wt + f) (read: X equals A times the cosine of omega t + phi (fee)), can represent an expression for: w) accelerating due to gravity x) uniform straight line motion y) dc current z) a simple harmonic oscillator

Last Answer : ANSWER: Z -- A SIMPLE HARMONIC OSCILLATOR

Given a stream of text, Named Entity Recognition determines which pronoun maps to which noun. a) False b) True

Description : Given a stream of text, Named Entity Recognition determines which pronoun maps to which noun. a) False b) True

Last Answer : a) False

Which of the following provides the best description of an entity type? (A) A specific concrete object with a defined set of processes (e.g. Jatin with diabetes) (B) A value given to a particular attribute (e.g. height-230 cm) (C) A thing that we wish to collect data about zero or more, possibly real world examples of it may exist. (D) A template for a group of things with the same set of characteristics that may exist in the real world

Description : Which of the following provides the best description of an entity type? (A) A specific concrete object with a defined set of processes (e.g. Jatin with diabetes) (B) A value given to a ... template for a group of things with the same set of characteristics that may exist in the real world

Last Answer : Answer: D

Which of the following statementss about ammonium cerium (IV) nitrate, `(NH_(4))_(2)[Ce(NO_(3))_(6)]` is false ?

Description : Which of the following statementss about ammonium cerium (IV) nitrate, `(NH_(4))_(2)[Ce(NO_(3))_(6)]` is false ?

Last Answer : Which of the following statementss about ammonium cerium (IV) nitrate, `(NH_(4))_(2)[Ce( ... icosahedron D. The solution is used as oxidizing agent.

By an external entity we mean a A) Unit outside the system being designed which can be controlled by an analyst. B) Unit outside the system whose behavior is independent of the system being designed C) A unit external to the system being designed D) A unit which is not part of a DFD

Description : By an external entity we mean a A) Unit outside the system being designed which can be controlled by an analyst. B) Unit outside the system whose behavior is independent of the system being designed C) A unit external to the system being designed D) A unit which is not part of a DFD

Last Answer : C) A unit external to the system being designed

The neurohormonal arm of the stress response is well defined. Less is known about the inflammatory arm mediated primarily by cytokines. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this arm of the surgical stress response? a. Cytokines primarily work locally via direct cell-to-cell communication b. Cytokines are never detectable in the systemic bloodstream c. Cytokines are produced only by immune cells attracted to the site of injury d. Cytokine release may stimulate the release of other cytokines leading to an important cascade of events

Description : The neurohormonal arm of the stress response is well defined. Less is known about the inflammatory arm mediated primarily by cytokines. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ... Cytokine release may stimulate the release of other cytokines leading to an important cascade of events

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Cytokines, which are produced at the site of injury by endothelial cells and by diverse immune cells throughout the body, also occupy a pivotal position in the stress response ... act as hormones and spill over into the systemic circulation and become detectable in the bloodstream

Which of the following statements is FALSE about weak entity set ? (A) Weak entities can be deleted automatically when their strong entity is deleted. (B) Weak entity set avoids the data duplication and consequent possible inconsistencies caused by duplicating the key of the strong entity. (C) A weak entity set has no primary keys unless attributes of the strong entity set on which it depends are included. (D) Tuples in a weak entity set are not partitioned according to their relationship with tuples in a strong entity set.

Description : Which of the following statements is FALSE about weak entity set ? (A) Weak entities can be deleted automatically when their strong entity is deleted. (B) Weak entity set avoids the data ... weak entity set are not partitioned according to their relationship with tuples in a strong entity set.

Last Answer : (D) Tuples in a weak entity set are not partitioned according to their relationship with tuples in a strong entity set.

Why doesn't my CE FC USB reader/writer copy information anymore? There's still 980mb of free space left.

Description : Why doesn't my CE FC USB reader/writer copy information anymore? There's still 980mb of free space left.

Last Answer : answer:The computer is giving conflicting information - that can be for a variety of reasons but usually means that it's unable to communicate with the drive properly or the drive's directory is ... . Keep in mind that many reputable USB flash drive brands have a lifetime return policy too.

If a photosynthesizing plant release oxygen containing more than normal amount of 180, it is concluded that the plant has been supplied with

Description : If a photosynthesizing plant release oxygen containing more than normal amount of 180, it is concluded that the plant has been supplied with

Last Answer : If a photosynthesizing plant release oxygen containing more than normal amount of 180, it is concluded that the ... )O` D. Oxygen in the form of ozone

The main difference between a motor control circuit containing low voltage protection and low voltage release is that the latter contains _____________. A. a magnetic operating coil B. normally open line contacts C. thermal-overload protection D. a momentary-contact start button

Description : The main difference between a motor control circuit containing low voltage protection and low voltage release is that the latter contains _____________. A. a magnetic operating coil B. normally open line contacts C. thermal-overload protection D. a momentary-contact start button

Last Answer : Answer: D

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column - II (A) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (B) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis (C) Neutrophils (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (D) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules containing histamine (A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (b) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

Description : Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column - II (A) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (B) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis (C) Neutrophils (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (D) Lymphocytes (iv) ... (iii) (c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

Last Answer : (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

True or false? Crocodiles have no sweat glands so they use their mouths to release heat.

Description : True or false? Crocodiles have no sweat glands so they use their mouths to release heat.

Last Answer : True - They often sleep with their mouth open to cool down.

Do plants release oxygen into the ground through its roots true or false?

Description : Do plants release oxygen into the ground through its roots true or false?

Last Answer : False - through the leaves, into air.

A vesicle is a sharply circumscribed lesion containing fluid A. True B. False

Description : A vesicle is a sharply circumscribed lesion containing fluid A. True B. False

Last Answer : Ans: A

Emails containing videos have higher open rates and click through rates. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say

Description : Emails containing videos have higher open rates and click through rates. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say

Last Answer : A. TRUE

Two men walk into a resturant by the sea and sit at the bar. Both men are covered in water. Both men order a plate of Albatross and take one bite. After chewing and swallowing, the first man stands up, walks outside, and shoots himself, while the other finnishes his meal. Why? -Riddles

Description : Two men walk into a resturant by the sea and sit at the bar. Both men are covered in water. Both men order a plate of Albatross and take one bite. After chewing and swallowing, the first man stands up, walks outside, and shoots himself, while the other finnishes his meal. Why? -Riddles

Last Answer : The two men were stranded out in the ocean with a third man when they were beginning to stave. When an albatross landed on their life boat and died they finally had food but it was not enough to ... eat real Albatross and the man who killed himself realized that he was the one that ate his friend.

Resilience is defined as the property of material to absorb energy when deformed _________ and to release this energy when unloaded. a) Elastically b) Plastically c) Up to fracture point d) None of the listed

Description : Resilience is defined as the property of material to absorb energy when deformed _________ and to release this energy when unloaded. a) Elastically b) Plastically c) Up to fracture point d) None of the listed

Last Answer : a) Elastically

Rate of heat release in a furnace, which is the measure of heat intensity, is defined as (A) kcal/hr/m3 combustion space (B) kcal/m3 combustion space (C) kcal/hr (D) None of these

Description : Rate of heat release in a furnace, which is the measure of heat intensity, is defined as (A) kcal/hr/m3 combustion space (B) kcal/m3 combustion space (C) kcal/hr (D) None of these

Last Answer : (A) kcal/hr/m3 combustion space

Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined “hot zone” for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were inhaled, bacteria will be killed immediately upon release from spores. Those who have symptoms of fever, cough, headache, chills, and especially evidence of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Description : Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined hot zone for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should ... . Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic

Last Answer : a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were ... of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

The Software Maturity Index (SMI) is defined as SMI = [Mf – (Fa + Fc + Fd)] / Mf Where Mf = the number of modules in the current release. Fa = the number of modules in the current release that have been added. Fc = the number of modules in the current release that have been changed. Fd = the number of modules in the current release that have been deleted. The product begins to stabilize when (A) SMI approaches 1 (B) SMI approaches 0 (C) SMI approaches -1 (D) None of the above

Description : The Software Maturity Index (SMI) is defined as SMI = [Mf - (Fa + Fc + Fd)] / Mf Where Mf = the number of modules in the current release. Fa = the number of modules in the current release that have ... (A) SMI approaches 1 (B) SMI approaches 0 (C) SMI approaches -1 (D) None of the above

Last Answer : (A) SMI approaches 1 

A bulk bag is defined as: (A) A special bag of printed papers to/from addressees/senders in foreign countries (B) A bag containing the mail posted by the senders in bulk (C) A bag containing seasonal mail (D) None of the above

Description : A bulk bag is defined as: (A) A special bag of printed papers to/from addressees/senders in foreign countries (B) A bag containing the mail posted by the senders in bulk (C) A bag containing seasonal mail (D) None of the above

Last Answer : (A) A special bag of printed papers to/from addressees/senders in foreign countries

Indicate the false statement. Noise figure is defined as A. the ratio of the S/N power supplied at the input terminal of a receiver or amplifier to the S/N power supplied to the output or load resistor B. noise factor expressed in decibels C. an unwanted form of energy tending to interfere with the proper and easy reception and reproduction of wanted signal D. S/N of an ideal system divided by S/N at the output of the receiver or amplifier under test, both working at the same temperature over the same bandwidth and fed from the same source

Description : Indicate the false statement. Noise figure is defined as A. the ratio of the S/N power supplied at the input terminal of a receiver or amplifier to the S/N power supplied to the output or ... under test, both working at the same temperature over the same bandwidth and fed from the same source

Last Answer : C. an unwanted form of energy tending to interfere with the proper and easy reception and reproduction of wanted signals

When the continuing auditor intends to use information about the entity and its environment obtained in prior periods, the auditor shoulda. Assess control risk as "high" for theassertions affected by the prior-periodinformation.b. Seek permission with the client in usingthe prior period information obtained bythe auditor.c. Determine whether changes haveoccurred that may affect therelevance of such information in thecurrent audit.d. Determine whether to equitably reducethe audit fee due to lower audit effortexpended during the engagement

Description : When the continuing auditor intends to use information about the entity and its environment obtained in prior periods, the auditor should a. Assess control risk as "high" for the assertions ... whether to equitably reduce the audit fee due to lower audit effort expended during the engagement

Last Answer : Determine whether changes have occurred that may affect the relevance of such information in the current audit.

In an engagement to perform agreed-upon procedures, an auditor is engaged to: a. Use accounting expertise as opposed to auditing expertise to collect, classify, and summarize financial information. b. Provide a moderate level of assurance that the information is free of material misstatement. c. Provide a high, but not absolute, level of assurance that the information is free of material misstatement. d. Carry out those procedures of an audit nature to which the auditor and the entity and any appropriate third parties have agreed and to report on factual findings

Description : In an engagement to perform agreed-upon procedures, an auditor is engaged to: a. Use accounting expertise as opposed to auditing expertise to collect, classify, and summarize financial information. b ... and the entity and any appropriate third parties have agreed and to report on factual findings

Last Answer : Carry out those procedures of an audit nature to which the auditor and the entity and any appropriate third parties have agreed and to report on factual findings

If the auditor learns that an entity is inappropriately using the auditor’s name in association with financial information, he/she should: a. Remain silent. b. Seek legal advice if necessary. c. Require management to cease doing so. d. Inform any known third party users of the inappropriate use of his/her name in connection with the information

Description : If the auditor learns that an entity is inappropriately using the auditor's name in association with financial information, he/she should: a. Remain silent. b. Seek legal advice if necessary. c ... known third party users of the inappropriate use of his/her name in connection with the information

Last Answer : Require management to cease doing so.

Which of the following is one of the limitations of an audit? a. Nature of evidence obtained b. Inadequacy of the accounting records c. Confidentiality of information d. Scope limitations imposed by the entity

Description : Which of the following is one of the limitations of an audit? a. Nature of evidence obtained b. Inadequacy of the accounting records c. Confidentiality of information d. Scope limitations imposed by the entity

Last Answer : Nature of evidence obtained

When performing a compilation engagement, the accountant is required to a. Make inquiries of management to assess the reliability and completeness of the information provided. b. Assess internal controls. c. Verify matters and explanations. d. Obtain a general knowledge of the business and operations of the entity.

Description : When performing a compilation engagement, the accountant is required to a. Make inquiries of management to assess the reliability and completeness of the information provided. b. Assess internal controls. ... explanations. d. Obtain a general knowledge of the business and operations of the entity.

Last Answer : Obtain a general knowledge of the business and operations of the entity.

The individual’s right to privacy deals mainly with information. What are the other things covered under this right? -Technology

Description : The individual’s right to privacy deals mainly with information. What are the other things covered under this right? -Technology

Last Answer : The right to privacy involves the decisions pertaining to questions like what information about one’s self or one’s associations must a person reveal to others , under what conditions and with what safeguards. What things can people keep to them and not be forced to reveal to others?

How many issues of information technology are covered under section 7 of the law ?

Description : How many issues of information technology are covered under section 7 of the law ?

Last Answer : Section 8 of the Act covers 20 subjects of information technology.

The technology is defined as the sophistication of a plant ,any equipment or any machine etc a.TRUE b.FALSE c.D d.

Description : The technology is defined as the sophistication of a plant ,any equipment or any machine etc a.TRUE b.FALSE c.D d.

Last Answer : b.FALSE

The technology is defined as the sophistication of a plant ,any equipment or anymachine etc a.TRUE b.FALSE c. d.

Description : The technology is defined as the sophistication of a plant ,any equipment or anymachine etc a.TRUE b.FALSE c. d.

Last Answer : b.FALSE

The dynamic load-carrying capacity of a bearing is defined as the radial load in radial bearings that can be carried for a minimum life of 1000 revolutions. (a) True (b) False

Description : The dynamic load-carrying capacity of a bearing is defined as the radial load in radial bearings that can be carried for a minimum life of 1000 revolutions. (a) True (b) False

Last Answer : (b) False

The dynamic load carrying capacity of a bearing is defined as the radial load in radial bearings that can be carried for a minimum life of 1000 revolutions. a) True b) False

Description : The dynamic load carrying capacity of a bearing is defined as the radial load in radial bearings that can be carried for a minimum life of 1000 revolutions. a) True b) False

Last Answer : b) False

Nipping is defined as leaving the gap between full length leaf and graduated length leaf. a) True b) False

Description : Nipping is defined as leaving the gap between full length leaf and graduated length leaf. a) True b) False

Last Answer : b) False

Patenting is defined as the cooling below the freezing point of water. a) True b) False

Description : Patenting is defined as the cooling below the freezing point of water. a) True b) False

Last Answer : b) False

A but joint can be defined as a joint between two components lying approximately in a different plane. a) True b) False

Description : A but joint can be defined as a joint between two components lying approximately in a different plane. a) True b) False

Last Answer : b) False