Why it is valid to say that both a function and its inverse describe the same relationship.?

Why it is valid to say that both a function and its inverse describe the same relationship.?
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If a function has an inverse then it is a bijection between twosets. Each element in the first set is mapped to one, and only one,element of the second set. Therefore, for each element in thesecond set there is one, and only one, element in the first set.The function and its inverse, both define the relationship betweenthe same pairs of elements.
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