Description : The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding
Last Answer : C. High plasma protein binding
Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance
Last Answer : D. Total body clearanc
Description : Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its: A. Lipid solubility B. Plasma protein binding C. Degree of ionization D. Rate of tubular secretion
Last Answer : B. Plasma protein binding
Last Answer : D. Total body clearance
Description : High plasma protein binding: A. Increases volume of distribution of the drug B. Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug C. Minimises drug interactions D. Generally makes the drug long acting
Last Answer : D. Generally makes the drug long acting
Description : A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution
Last Answer : D. Redistribution
Description : The most important factor which governs diffusion of drugs across capillaries other than those in the brain is: A. Blood flow through the capillary B. Lipid solubility of the drug C. pKa value of the drug D. pH of the medium
Last Answer : A. Blood flow through the capillary
Description : The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is: A. Molecular weight of the drug B. Site of application C. Lipid solubility of the drug D. Nature of the base used in the formulation
Last Answer : C. Lipid solubility of the drug
Description : The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant
Last Answer : C. Volume of distribution
Description : If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L
Last Answer : B. 80 L
Description : 2 If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L
Description : If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μ g/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L
Description : Marked redistribution is a feature of: A. Highly lipid soluble drugs B. Poorly lipid soluble drugs C. Depot preparations D. Highly plasma protein bound drugs
Last Answer : A. Highly lipid soluble drugs
Description : The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed
Last Answer : D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed
Description : Induction of drug metabolizing enzymes involves: A. A conformational change in the enzyme protein to favour binding of substrate molecules B. Expression of enzyme molecules on the surface of ... C. Enhanced transport of substrate molecules into hepatocytes D. Increased synthesis of enzyme protein
Last Answer : D. Increased synthesis of enzyme protein
Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution
Description : Which of the following is not a primary/fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter: A. Bioavailability B. Volume of distribution C. Clearance D. Plasma half life
Last Answer : D. Plasma half life
Description : The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver
Last Answer : D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver
Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist
Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist
Description : Which of the following is not true of the blood-brain barrier: A. It is constituted by tight junctions between the endothelial cells of brain capillaries and the glial tissue B. It allows passage ... of highly ionized drugs into the brain D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood
Last Answer : D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood
Description : Biotransformation of drugs is primarily directed to: A. Activate the drug B. Inactivate the drug C. Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites D. Convert nonlipid soluble drugs into lipid soluble metabolites
Last Answer : C. Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites
Description : Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the ... the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug
Last Answer : A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug
Last Answer : A
Description : If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is: A. 0.5 L/hr B. 2.0 L/hr C. 5.0 L/hr D. 20 L/hr
Last Answer : B. 2.0 L/hr
Description : When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the steady-state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after: A. 2–3 half lives B. 4–5 half lives C. 6–7 half lives D. 8–10 half lives
Last Answer : B. 4–5 half lives
Description : If the clearance of a drug remains constant, doubling the dose rate will increase the steady-state plasma drug concentration by a factor of: A. × 3 B. × 2 C. × 1.5 D. × 1.3
Last Answer : B. × 2
Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache
Last Answer : Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings
Description : Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors
Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate
Description : The antidotal action of sodium nitrite in cyanide poisoning is based on: A. Physical antagonism B. Chemical antagonism C. Physiological antagonism D. Noncompetitive antagonism
Last Answer : B. Chemical antagonism
Description : The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects
Last Answer : D. They have opposite physiological effects
Description : The dose of the following class of drugs has to be adjusted by repeated measurement of the affected physiological parameter: A. Oral contraceptives B. Antiepileptics C. Antidepressants D. Oral anticoagulants
Last Answer : D. Oral anticoagulants