5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized
at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it
produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action:
A. Metabolism in liver
B. Plasma protein binding
C. Excretion by kidney
D. Redistribution
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Redistribution
by

Related questions

A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Marked redistribution is a feature of: A. Highly lipid soluble drugs B. Poorly lipid soluble drugs C. Depot preparations D. Highly plasma protein bound drugs

Description : Marked redistribution is a feature of: A. Highly lipid soluble drugs B. Poorly lipid soluble drugs C. Depot preparations D. Highly plasma protein bound drugs

Last Answer : A. Highly lipid soluble drugs

Marked redistribution is a feature of: A. Highly lipid soluble drugs B. Poorly lipid soluble drugs C. Depot preparations D. Highly plasma protein bound drugs

Description : Marked redistribution is a feature of: A. Highly lipid soluble drugs B. Poorly lipid soluble drugs C. Depot preparations D. Highly plasma protein bound drugs

Last Answer : A. Highly lipid soluble drugs

Marked redistribution is a feature of: A. Highly lipid soluble drugs B. Poorly lipid soluble drugs C. Depot preparations D. Highly plasma protein bound drugs

Description : Marked redistribution is a feature of: A. Highly lipid soluble drugs B. Poorly lipid soluble drugs C. Depot preparations D. Highly plasma protein bound drugs

Last Answer : A. Highly lipid soluble drugs

If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Last Answer : D. Total body clearance

Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Description : Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Last Answer : B. Renal excretion

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its: A. Lipid solubility B. Plasma protein binding C. Degree of ionization D. Rate of tubular secretion

Description : Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its: A. Lipid solubility B. Plasma protein binding C. Degree of ionization D. Rate of tubular secretion

Last Answer : B. Plasma protein binding

If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Last Answer : D. Total body clearanc

Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its: A. Lipid solubility B. Plasma protein binding C. Degree of ionization D. Rate of tubular secretion

Description : Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its: A. Lipid solubility B. Plasma protein binding C. Degree of ionization D. Rate of tubular secretion

Last Answer : B. Plasma protein binding

Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia

The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Description : The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Last Answer : C. High plasma protein binding

The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Description : The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Last Answer : C. High plasma protein binding

The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Description : The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Last Answer : C. High plasma protein binding

The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation C. They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Description : The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation ... in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Last Answer : A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble

The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Description : The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Last Answer : Ans: D

In an anaesthetized dog, repeated intravenous injection of ephedrine shows the phenomenon of: A. Anaphylaxis B. Tachyphylaxis C. Idiosyncrasy D. Drug resistance

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Last Answer : B. Tachyphylaxis

Which of the following is not true of the blood-brain barrier: A. It is constituted by tight junctions between the endothelial cells of brain capillaries and the glial tissue B. It allows passage of lipid soluble drugs into the brain C. It limits entry of highly ionized drugs into the brain D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood

Description : Which of the following is not true of the blood-brain barrier: A. It is constituted by tight junctions between the endothelial cells of brain capillaries and the glial tissue B. It allows passage ... of highly ionized drugs into the brain D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood

Last Answer : D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood

Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors

The following are true about calcium regulating hormones: a. calcitonin increases the plasma calcium concentration b. vitamin D is produced in the skin c. vitamin D is metabolized to its active form in the liver and kidney. d. vitamin D increases calcium absorption from the gut

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Last Answer : vitamin D increases calcium absorption from the gut

The following drug displaces plasma protein bound phenytoin as well as decreases its metabolism: A. Carbamazepine B. Sodium valproate C. Cimetidine D. Chloramphenicol

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Last Answer : B. Sodium valproate

Intravenous regional anaesthesia is suitable for: A. Orthopedic manipulations on the upper limb B. Vascular surgery on the lower limb C. Head and neck surgery D. Caesarian section

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Last Answer : A. Orthopedic manipulations on the upper limb

Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of reactions which lead to a variety of cellular injuries. Oxidants are derived from several sources, notably phagocytes. Among the effects of oxygen free radicals are membrane lipid peroxidation, DNA strand breaks, cytoskeletal disassembly and inhibition of glucose metabolism leading to decreased cellular ATP concentrations. (Figure 6-16) 187 Which of the following acute-phase protein levels are increased in human plasma following acute inflammation? a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The acute-phase response is a series of homeostatic responses of the organism to tissue injury in infection and inflammation. After an inflammatory stimulus occurs, a number ... 30% to 50% of the level before injury. The reason for the decrease in production is poorly understood

Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Description : Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Last Answer : C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin

The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Description : The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Last Answer : D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Description : The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Last Answer : D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Description : The plasma protein bound fraction of a drug: A. Contributes to the response at the given moment B. Remains constant irrespective of the total drug concentration C. Remains constant irrespective of the disease state D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

Last Answer : D. Is not available for metabolism unless actively extracted by the liver

The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Description : The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Last Answer : D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprosto

Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Makes the injection less painful

Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia

A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : C. Atenolol

The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : A. Prazosin

The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Description : The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Last Answer : D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the kidney C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Description : Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the ... C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Last Answer : D. They can lower intraocular pressure

‘Red man syndrome’ has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of the following antibiotic: A. Vancomycin B. Clindamycin C. Cefoperazone D. Piperacillin

Description : ‘Red man syndrome’ has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of the following antibiotic: A. Vancomycin B. Clindamycin C. Cefoperazone D. Piperacillin

Last Answer : A. Vancomycin

A semiconscious patient of haemorrhagic cerebral stroke has been brought to the emergency. His blood pressure is 240/120 mmHg. Select the procedure to lower his blood pressure as rapidly as possible: A. Sublingual nifedipine B. Intramuscular injection of hydralazine C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside D. Intravenous injection of clonidin

Description : A semiconscious patient of haemorrhagic cerebral stroke has been brought to the emergency. His blood pressure is 240/120 mmHg. Select the procedure to lower his blood pressure as ... injection of hydralazine C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside D. Intravenous injection of clonidin

Last Answer : C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprussid

The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection

Description : The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection

Last Answer : A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

The primary reason for not using ethionamide as a first line antitubercular drug is: A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis B. It is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal C. Ethionamide resistance has become widespread D. It has to be given by injection

Description : The primary reason for not using ethionamide as a first line antitubercular drug is: A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis B. It is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal C. Ethionamide resistance has become widespread D. It has to be given by injection

Last Answer : A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis

Glucose entry into the cells of the following organ/ tissue is highly dependent on the presence of insulin: A. Brain B. Liver C. Adipose tissue D. Kidney tubules

Description : Glucose entry into the cells of the following organ/ tissue is highly dependent on the presence of insulin: A. Brain B. Liver C. Adipose tissue D. Kidney tubules

Last Answer : C. Adipose tissue

The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following property common to all members: A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. They are more active in acidic medium C. They readily enter cells and are distributed in total body water D. They are nearly completely metabolized in liver

Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following property common to all members: A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. They are more active in acidic medium C. They ... cells and are distributed in total body water D. They are nearly completely metabolized in liver

Last Answer : A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli

Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Description : Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Last Answer : C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation

Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Description : Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Last Answer : C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation

The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Description : The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Last Answer : D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Pharmacodynamics considers; B A. The way in which the drug affects the Body B. The effect of drug in the body and mode of action C. Drug metabolism D. Drug excretion

Description : Pharmacodynamics considers;  B A. The way in which the drug affects the Body B. The effect of drug in the body and mode of action C. Drug metabolism D. Drug excretion

Last Answer : The effect of drug in the body and mode of action

Pharmacokinetics is: a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs c) The study of mechanisms of drug action d) The study of methods of new drug development

Description : Pharmacokinetics is: a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs c) The study of mechanisms of drug action d) The study of methods of new drug development

Last Answer : b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs

Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects

Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic

Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during surgery C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Description : Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during ... Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Last Answer : C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events