Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
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D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
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Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Last Answer : D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Description : Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia

Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Description : Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia

Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction: A. Muscle dystonia caused by triflupromazine B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone C. Precipitation of asthma by morphine D. Gum hyperplasia caused by phenytoin

Description : Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction: A. Muscle dystonia caused by triflupromazine B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone C. Precipitation of asthma by morphine D. Gum hyperplasia caused by phenytoin

Last Answer : B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone

The following drug adverse effect is specially noted in men compared to women: A. Tardive dyskinesia due to neuroleptics B. Levodopa induced abnormal movements C. Ampicillin induced loose motions D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido

Description : The following drug adverse effect is specially noted in men compared to women: A. Tardive dyskinesia due to neuroleptics B. Levodopa induced abnormal movements C. Ampicillin induced loose motions D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido

Last Answer : D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido

The following drug adverse effect is specially noted in men compared to women: A. Tardive dyskinesia due to neuroleptics B. Levodopa induced abnormal movements C. Ampicillin induced loose motions D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido

Description : The following drug adverse effect is specially noted in men compared to women: A. Tardive dyskinesia due to neuroleptics B. Levodopa induced abnormal movements C. Ampicillin induced loose motions D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido

Last Answer : D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido

The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic drug therapy which does not respond to central anticholinergics is: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Rabbit syndrome D. Tardive dyskinesia

Description : The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic drug therapy which does not respond to central anticholinergics is: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Rabbit syndrome D. Tardive dyskinesia

Last Answer : D. Tardive dyskinesia

Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction: A. Muscle dystonia caused by triflupromazine B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone C. Precipitation of asthma by morphine D. Gum hyperplasia caused by phenytoin

Description : Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction: A. Muscle dystonia caused by triflupromazine B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone C. Precipitation of asthma by morphine D. Gum hyperplasia caused by phenytoin

Last Answer : B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone

The essential feature in drug addiction is: A. Physical dependence B. Psychological dependence C. Both physical and psychological dependence D. Psychiatric abnormality

Description : The essential feature in drug addiction is: A. Physical dependence B. Psychological dependence C. Both physical and psychological dependence D. Psychiatric abnormality

Last Answer : B. Psychological dependence

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Description : Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and ... d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Immediate hemolytic reactions are usually caused by blood group ABO incompatibility although they may be caused by antigens of other blood group systems ... when associated with massive transfusion during complex intraoperative procedures such as thoracoabdominal aneurysm resection

Adverse consequences may follow sudden discontinuation of the following drug after chronic intake: A. Cocaine B. Cannabis C. Clonidine D. All of the above

Description : Adverse consequences may follow sudden discontinuation of the following drug after chronic intake: A. Cocaine B. Cannabis C. Clonidine D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Clonidine

Which of the following is a type B (unpredictable) adverse drug reaction: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Idiosyncrasy D. Physical dependence

Description : Which of the following is a type B (unpredictable) adverse drug reaction: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Idiosyncrasy D. Physical dependence

Last Answer : A. Side effect

Adverse consequences may follow sudden discontinuation of the following drug after chronic intake: A. Cocaine B. Cannabis C. Clonidine D. All of the above

Description : Adverse consequences may follow sudden discontinuation of the following drug after chronic intake: A. Cocaine B. Cannabis C. Clonidine D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Clonidine

Which of the following is a type B (unpredictable) adverse drug reaction: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Idiosyncrasy D. Physical dependence

Description : Which of the following is a type B (unpredictable) adverse drug reaction: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Idiosyncrasy D. Physical dependence

Last Answer : C. Idiosyncrasy

The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide

Description : The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

Indicate the drug that can be used as an alternative to primaquine for radical cure of vivax malaria: A. Atovaquone B. Bulaquine C. Tetracycline D. Proguanil

Description : Indicate the drug that can be used as an alternative to primaquine for radical cure of vivax malaria: A. Atovaquone B. Bulaquine C. Tetracycline D. Proguanil

Last Answer : B. Bulaquine

Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate

Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide

Description : Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Allopurinol

The most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of the following reaction in certain recipients: A. Ventricular arrhythmia B. Agranulocytosis C. Haemolysis D. Anaphylaxis

Description : The most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of the following reaction in certain recipients: A. Ventricular arrhythmia B. Agranulocytosis C. Haemolysis D. Anaphylaxis

Last Answer : C. Haemolysis

The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of codeine into morphine C. Its altered form is responsible for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

Description : The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of ... for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

Last Answer : A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamo

A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Description : A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Last Answer : B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication

A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Description : A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms

Last Answer : B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication

Drug metabolism can be induced by the following factors except: A. Cigarette smoking B. Acute alcohol ingestion C. Exposure to insecticides D. Consumption charcoal broiled meat

Description : Drug metabolism can be induced by the following factors except: A. Cigarette smoking B. Acute alcohol ingestion C. Exposure to insecticides D. Consumption charcoal broiled meat

Last Answer : B. Acute alcohol ingestion

Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Description : Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action

Thrombocytopenia - drug induced?

Description : Thrombocytopenia - drug induced?

Last Answer : DefinitionThrombocytopenia is any disorder in which there are not enough platelets. Platelets are cells in the blood that help the blood clot. A low platelet count makes bleeding more likely ... antibodies, which seek and destroy your platelets, the condition is called drug-induced immune thrombocyt

Which racial difference in response to drugs has been mentioned incorrectly below: A. Africans require higher concentration of atropine to dilate pupils B. Black races are more responsive to antihypertensive action of beta blockers C. Japanese are more prone to develop SMON due to halogenated hydroxyquinolines D. Chloramphenicol induced aplastic anaemia is rare among Indians

Description : Which racial difference in response to drugs has been mentioned incorrectly below: A. Africans require higher concentration of atropine to dilate pupils B. Black races are more responsive ... SMON due to halogenated hydroxyquinolines D. Chloramphenicol induced aplastic anaemia is rare among Indians

Last Answer : B. Black races are more responsive to antihypertensive action of beta blockers

The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is: A. Molecular weight of the drug B. Site of application C. Lipid solubility of the drug D. Nature of the base used in the formulation

Description : The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is: A. Molecular weight of the drug B. Site of application C. Lipid solubility of the drug D. Nature of the base used in the formulation

Last Answer : C. Lipid solubility of the drug

The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is: A. Molecular weight of the drug B. Site of application C. Lipid solubility of the drug D. Nature of the base used in the formulation

Description : The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is: A. Molecular weight of the drug B. Site of application C. Lipid solubility of the drug D. Nature of the base used in the formulation

Last Answer : C. Lipid solubility of the drug

The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is: A. Molecular weight of the drug B. Site of application C. Lipid solubility of the drug D. Nature of the base used in the formulation

Description : The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is: A. Molecular weight of the drug B. Site of application C. Lipid solubility of the drug D. Nature of the base used in the formulation

Last Answer : C. Lipid solubility of the drug

Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting? a) A patient reports a skin rash after starting a course on amoxicillin capsules. b) A patient reports experiencing dyspepsia when they take their indomethacin capsules. c) A patient complains of a dry irritating cough since they have started taking ramipril. d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting? a) A patient ... started taking ramipril. d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

Last Answer : d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

The following statement is true in relation to ‘drug toxicity’ and ‘poisoning’: A. The two terms are synonymous B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals

Description : The following statement is true in relation to drug toxicity' and poisoning': A. The two terms are synonymous B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning C. ... is called poisoning D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals

Last Answer : C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning

What is true in relation to drug receptors: A. All drugs act through specific receptors B. All drug receptors are located on the surface of the target cells C. Agonists induce a conformational change in the receptor D. Partial agonists have low affinity for the receptor

Description : What is true in relation to drug receptors: A. All drugs act through specific receptors B. All drug receptors are located on the surface of the target cells C. Agonists induce a conformational change in the receptor D. Partial agonists have low affinity for the receptor

Last Answer : C. Agonists induce a conformational change in the receptoR

The following statement is true in relation to ‘drug toxicity’ and ‘poisoning’: A. The two terms are synonymous B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals

Description : The following statement is true in relation to drug toxicity' and poisoning': A. The two terms are synonymous B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning C. ... is called poisoning D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals

Last Answer : C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning

What is true in relation to drug receptors: A. All drugs act through specific receptors B. All drug receptors are located on the surface of the target cells C. Agonists induce a conformational change in the receptor D. Partial agonists have low affinity for the receptor

Description : What is true in relation to drug receptors: A. All drugs act through specific receptors B. All drug receptors are located on the surface of the target cells C. Agonists induce a conformational change in the receptor D. Partial agonists have low affinity for the receptor

Last Answer : C. Agonists induce a conformational change in the receptor

Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Description : Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : D. Mefloquine

Agonist induced autophosphorylation, internalization and down regulation is a distinctive feature of: A. G-protein coupled receptors B. Intrinsic ion channel containing receptors C. Tyrosine protein kinase receptors D. Receptors regulating gene expression

Description : Agonist induced autophosphorylation, internalization and down regulation is a distinctive feature of: A. G-protein coupled receptors B. Intrinsic ion channel containing receptors C. Tyrosine protein kinase receptors D. Receptors regulating gene expression

Last Answer : C. Tyrosine protein kinase receptors

An old male presents complaining of having numerous white lesions in the oral cavity within past few days. Prior to this the family physician prescribed chlorite tetracycline for an upper respiratory infection, the patient is taking this antibiotic for the past two weeks; lesions are relatively non-painful, slightly elevated, adhered plaques on the lip mucosa, buccal mucosa and the tongue. MOST LIKELY to be:

Description : An old male presents complaining of having numerous white lesions in the oral cavity within past  few days. Prior to this the family physician prescribed chlorite tetracycline for an upper  respiratory infection, ... plaques on the lip mucosa, buccal mucosa and  the tongue. MOST LIKELY to be: 

Last Answer : Moniliasis (Which is candidiasis) 

In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self- cells, then it leads to (a) autoimmune disease (b) active immunity (c) allergic response (d) graft rejection.

Description : In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self- cells, then it leads to (a) autoimmune disease (b) active immunity (c) allergic response (d) graft rejection.

Last Answer : (a) autoimmune disease

Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as (a) implantation of defective embryo in the uterus (b) pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance(c) pregnancies with genetic abnormality (d) implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.

Description : Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as (a) implantation of defective embryo in the uterus (b) pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance (c) pregnancies with genetic abnormality (d) implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.

Last Answer : (d) implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.

The type II, type III and type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be suppressed by: A. Adrenaline B. Antihistaminics C. Corticosteroids D. Sod. cromoglycate

Description : The type II, type III and type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be suppressed by: A. Adrenaline B. Antihistaminics C. Corticosteroids D. Sod. cromoglycate

Last Answer : C. Corticosteroids

The type II, type III and type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be suppressed by: A. Adrenaline B. Antihistaminics C. Corticosteroids D. Sod. cromoglycate

Description : The type II, type III and type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be suppressed by: A. Adrenaline B. Antihistaminics C. Corticosteroids D. Sod. cromoglycate

Last Answer : C. Corticosteroids

Drugs producing allergic reactions generally act as: A. Complete antigens B. Haptenes C. Antibodies D. Mediators

Description : Drugs producing allergic reactions generally act as: A. Complete antigens B. Haptenes C. Antibodies D. Mediators

Last Answer : B. Haptenes

The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is: A. Canal of Schlemm B. Ciliary body C. Ciliary muscle D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Description : The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is: A. Canal of Schlemm B. Ciliary body C. Ciliary muscle D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Last Answer : D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

Description : Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle

Edrophonium is more suitable for differentiating myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis because of its: A. Shorter duration of action B. Longer duration of action C. Direct action on muscle end-plate D. Selective inhibition of true cholinesterase

Description : Edrophonium is more suitable for differentiating myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis because of its: A. Shorter duration of action B. Longer duration of action C. Direct action on muscle end-plate D. Selective inhibition of true cholinesterase

Last Answer : A. Shorter duration of action

The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of acetylcholine released from motor nerve endings to a wider area activating neighbouring receptors C. Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above

Description : The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of ... Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Description : Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier

Last Answer : C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate

The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by cholinergic drugs is: A. Colon B. Gastric fundus C. Major bronchi D. Bladder trigone

Description : The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by cholinergic drugs is: A. Colon B. Gastric fundus C. Major bronchi D. Bladder trigone

Last Answer : D. Bladder trigone