Indicate the drug that can be used as an alternative to primaquine for radical cure of vivax malaria: A. Atovaquone B. Bulaquine C. Tetracycline D. Proguanil

Indicate the drug that can be used as an alternative
to primaquine for radical cure of vivax malaria:
A. Atovaquone
B. Bulaquine
C. Tetracycline
D. Proguanil
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Bulaquine
by

Related questions

The following drug is a radical curative in vivax malaria: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Mefloquine D. Chloroquine

Description : The following drug is a radical curative in vivax malaria: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Mefloquine D. Chloroquine

Last Answer : B. Primaquine

The following drug should be used only as clinical curative but not as prophylactic in malaria: A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine B. Proguanil C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Description : The following drug should be used only as clinical curative but not as prophylactic in malaria: A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine B. Proguanil C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine

The following drug is a causal prophylactic for falciparum malaria and suppressive prophylactic for vivax malaria: A. Chloroquine B. Mepacrine C. Quinine D. Proguanil

Description : The following drug is a causal prophylactic for falciparum malaria and suppressive prophylactic for vivax malaria: A. Chloroquine B. Mepacrine C. Quinine D. Proguanil

Last Answer : D. Proguanil

A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Description : A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Description : Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Radical cure of vivax malaria should be attempted in: A. Areas where only sporadic cases occur B. Endemic areas with effective vector control measures C. Endemic areas not covered by vector control D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : Radical cure of vivax malaria should be attempted in: A. Areas where only sporadic cases occur B. Endemic areas with effective vector control measures C. Endemic areas not covered by vector control D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Description : Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : D. Mefloquine

The following antimalarial drug is more active against pre-and exoerythrocytic stages of the malarial parasite than against the erythrocytic stage: A. Proguanil B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine D. Halofantrine

Description : The following antimalarial drug is more active against pre-and exoerythrocytic stages of the malarial parasite than against the erythrocytic stage: A. Proguanil B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine D. Halofantrine

Last Answer : B. Primaquine

Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Last Answer : D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

Description : Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

Last Answer : B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria

An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the drug that you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

Description : An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the ... you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

Last Answer : B. Doxycycline

Indicate the drug that is a slow acting low efficacy blood schizontocide that should not be used as a clinical curative: A. Proguanil B. Chloroquine C. Quinine D. Mefloquine

Description : Indicate the drug that is a slow acting low efficacy blood schizontocide that should not be used as a clinical curative: A. Proguanil B. Chloroquine C. Quinine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : A. Proguanil

Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Its schizontocidal action is slow

Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Description : Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate

Description : Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not active against P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain

The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine

Description : The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine

Last Answer : B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria

Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Last Answer : D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Choose the antimalarial drug effective against multidrug resistant P. falciparum, which rapidly terminates an attack of malarial fever, but has a short duration of action, so that recrudescence is common: A. Proguanil B. Mefloquine C. Amodiaquine D. Artemisinin

Description : Choose the antimalarial drug effective against multidrug resistant P. falciparum, which rapidly terminates an attack of malarial fever, but has a short duration of action, so that recrudescence is common: A. Proguanil B. Mefloquine C. Amodiaquine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : D. Artemisinin

The fastest acting schizontocidal drug among the following is: A. Artemether B. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine D. Proguanil

Description : The fastest acting schizontocidal drug among the following is: A. Artemether B. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine D. Proguanil

Last Answer : A. Artemether

elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Description : elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : B. Proguanil + Chloroquine

Identify the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum : (A.) Artemisinin (B) Primaquine (C) Quinine (D) Mefloquine

Description : Identify the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum : (A.) Artemisinin (B) Primaquine (C) Quinine (D) Mefloquine

Last Answer : (B) Primaquine

Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Description : Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

The following drug is effective in hepatic amoebiasis but not in intestinal amoebiasis: A. Chloroquine B. Emetine C. Tetracycline D. Diloxanide furoate

Description : The following drug is effective in hepatic amoebiasis but not in intestinal amoebiasis: A. Chloroquine B. Emetine C. Tetracycline D. Diloxanide furoate

Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora C. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low

The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : C. Phenytoin

If a drug is active against the preerythrocytic stage of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Causal prophylactic C. Clinical curative D. Radical curative

Description : If a drug is active against the preerythrocytic stage of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Causal prophylactic C. Clinical curative D. Radical curative

Last Answer : B. Causal prophylactic

Malaria can be treated by a) choloroquine b) mefloquine c) primaquine d) All of these

Description : Malaria can be treated by a) choloroquine b) mefloquine c) primaquine d) All of these

Last Answer : d) All of these

Assertion : Plasmodium vivax is responsible for malaria. Reason : Malaria is caused by polluted water.

Description : Assertion : Plasmodium vivax is responsible for malaria. Reason : Malaria is caused by polluted water.

Last Answer : Assertion : Plasmodium vivax is responsible for malaria. Reason : Malaria is caused by polluted water. ... If both the assertion and reason are false

Which one of the following types of malaria is pernicious malaria? (1) Vivax (2) Ralapse (3) Tertian (4) Malignant

Description : Which one of the following types of malaria is pernicious malaria? (1) Vivax (2) Ralapse (3) Tertian (4) Malignant

Last Answer : (4) Malignant Explanation: Pernicious malaria is always caused by Plasmodium falciparum and characterized by severe malarial paroxysms that recur about every 48 hours and of-ten by acute cerebral, renal, or gastrointestinal manifestations. It is also called malignant tertian malaria.

Which one of the following options gives the correct match of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection? Disease Causative Mode of organism infection (a) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired typhi air (b) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet pneumoniae infection (c) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With infected bancrofti water and food (d) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male vivax Anopheles mosquito

Description : Which one of the following options gives the correct match of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection? Disease Causative Mode of organism infection (a) Typhoid Salmonella ... infected bancrofti water and food (d) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male vivax Anopheles mosquito

Last Answer : (a) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired typhi air

Which one of the following types of malaria is pernicious malaria ? (1) Vivax (2) Ralapse (3) Tertian (4) Malignant

Description : Which one of the following types of malaria is pernicious malaria ? (1) Vivax (2) Ralapse (3) Tertian (4) Malignant

Last Answer : Malignant

The drug of choice for cerebral malaria due to P. falciparum is: A. Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine D. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine

Description : The drug of choice for cerebral malaria due to P. falciparum is: A. Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine D. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine

Last Answer : A. Quinine

The most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of the following reaction in certain recipients: A. Ventricular arrhythmia B. Agranulocytosis C. Haemolysis D. Anaphylaxis

Description : The most important risk in the use of primaquine is the occurrence of the following reaction in certain recipients: A. Ventricular arrhythmia B. Agranulocytosis C. Haemolysis D. Anaphylaxis

Last Answer : C. Haemolysis

Chloroquine acts as: A. Preerythrocytic schizontocide for both P. falciparum and P. vivax B. Erythrocytic schizontocide for both P. falciparum and P. vivax C. Exoerythrocytic schizontocide for P. vivax D. Gametocidal for P. falciparum

Description : Chloroquine acts as: A. Preerythrocytic schizontocide for both P. falciparum and P. vivax B. Erythrocytic schizontocide for both P. falciparum and P. vivax C. Exoerythrocytic schizontocide for P. vivax D. Gametocidal for P. falciparum

Last Answer : B. Erythrocytic schizontocide for both P. falciparum and P. vivax

Indicate the drug that is not effective in amoebiasis A. Ornidazole B. Mebendazole C. Satranidazole D. Secnidazole

Description : Indicate the drug that is not effective in amoebiasis A. Ornidazole B. Mebendazole C. Satranidazole D. Secnidazole

Last Answer : B. Mebendazole

Indicate the drug(s) that is/are used to treat chronic hepatitis B: A. Human interferon α B. Lamivudine C. Amantadine D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Description : Indicate the drug(s) that is/are used to treat chronic hepatitis B: A. Human interferon α B. Lamivudine C. Amantadine D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin

Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial concentration in the urinary tract but not in other tissues: A. Pefloxacin B. Amikacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Cephalexin

Description : Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial concentration in the urinary tract but not in other tissues: A. Pefloxacin B. Amikacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Cephalexin

Last Answer : C. Nitrofurantoin

The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with chloramphenicol C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Description : The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with ... C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Last Answer : D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone

Description : The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone

Last Answer : C. Chloramphenicol

A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Description : Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria

The most common mechanism of development of resistance to fluoroquinolones is: A. Chromosomal mutation altering affinity of target site B. Plasmid transfer C. Acquisition of drug destroying enzyme D. Acquisition of alternative metabolic pathway

Description : The most common mechanism of development of resistance to fluoroquinolones is: A. Chromosomal mutation altering affinity of target site B. Plasmid transfer C. Acquisition of drug destroying enzyme D. Acquisition of alternative metabolic pathway

Last Answer : A. Chromosomal mutation altering affinity of target site

The following drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in mania and bipolar illness: A. Carbamazepine B. Carisoprodol C. Clomipramine D. Diethyl carbamazine

Description : The following drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in mania and bipolar illness: A. Carbamazepine B. Carisoprodol C. Clomipramine D. Diethyl carbamazine

Last Answer : A. Carbamazepine

Tetracycline is indicated in the following form(s) of amoebic infection: A. Acute amoebic dysentery B. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. All of the above

Description : Tetracycline is indicated in the following form(s) of amoebic infection: A. Acute amoebic dysentery B. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis

The tetracycline with highest antileprotic activity is: A. Minocycline B. Doxycycline C. Demeclocycline D. Oxytetracycline

Description : The tetracycline with highest antileprotic activity is: A. Minocycline B. Doxycycline C. Demeclocycline D. Oxytetracycline

Last Answer : A. Minocycline