Description : Pilocarpine is used for: A. Glaucoma B. Paralytic ileus C. Urinary retention D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Glaucoma
Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol
Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects
Description : Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow
Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle
Description : A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal ... drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole
Last Answer : C. Loperamide
Description : Actions of pilocarpine include the following except: A. Sweating B. Salivation C. Miosis D. Cycloplegia
Last Answer : D. Cycloplegia
Description : Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting
Last Answer : A. Is a β1 selective blocker
Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers
Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers
Description : The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is: A. Canal of Schlemm B. Ciliary body C. Ciliary muscle D. Sphincter pupillae muscle
Last Answer : D. Sphincter pupillae muscle
Description : A direct-acting cholinomimetic that is lipid-soluble and often used in the treatment of glaucoma is (a) Acetylcholine (b) Bethanechol (c) Physostigmine (d) Pilocarpine (e) Neostigmine
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : What threatens me if I still hold my urine for work? Will I have any problems?
Last Answer : Not sure. Nothing is free.
Description : What is Event ration of paralytic diaphragm?
Last Answer : Need answer
Description : In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary deviation in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same
Last Answer : ANSWER: A
Description : Reflex bronchoconstriction is most likely to occur with the following form of inhaled antiasthma medication: A. Metered dose spray of drug in solution B. Dry powder rotacap C. Nebuliser D. Nebuliser with spacer
Last Answer : B. Dry powder rotacap
Description : Select the drug which has been found to be a strong human teratogen: A. Isoniazid B. Isotretinoin C. Hydralazine D. Propylthiouracil
Last Answer : B. Isotretinoin
Description : The following is a proven human teratogen: A. Chloroquine B. Warfarin sodium C. Dicyclomine D. Methyldopa
Last Answer : B. Warfarin sodium
Description : The most vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformations due to drugs is: A. 18-55 days of gestation B. 56-84 days of gestation C. Second trimester D. 36 weeks onwards
Last Answer : A. 18-55 days of gestation
Description : Adverse consequences may follow sudden discontinuation of the following drug after chronic intake: A. Cocaine B. Cannabis C. Clonidine D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Clonidine
Description : An addicting drug which produces little or no physical dependence is: A. Diazepam B. Phenobarbitone C. Amphetamine D. Methadone
Last Answer : C. Amphetamine
Description : Intradermal drug sensitivity tests can detect the presence of following type of hypersensitivity: A. Type I (anaphylactic) B. Type II (cytolytic) C. Type III (retarded) D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Type I (anaphylactic)
Description : The most appropriate route of administration for adrenaline in a case of anaphylactic shock is: A. Intracardiac B. Intravenous C. Intramuscular D. Subcutaneous
Last Answer : A. Intracardiac
Description : The type II, type III and type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be suppressed by: A. Adrenaline B. Antihistaminics C. Corticosteroids D. Sod. cromoglycate
Last Answer : C. Corticosteroids
Description : Which of the following is the only life saving measure in case of anaphylactic shock: A. Intravenous hydrocortisone hemisuccinate B. Intravenous chlorpheniramine maleate C. Intramuscular adrenaline hydrochloride D. Intravenous glucose-saline
Last Answer : C. Intramuscular adrenaline hydrochloride
Description : Use of an emetic to remove the ingested poison is contraindicated in following poisonings except that by: A. Strychnine B. Caustic soda C. Ferrous sulfate D. Kerosene
Last Answer : C. Ferrous sulfate
Description : The following statement is true in relation to drug toxicity' and poisoning': A. The two terms are synonymous B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning C. ... is called poisoning D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals
Last Answer : C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning
Description : A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms
Last Answer : B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication
Description : The side effect of a drug which has been used as a therapeutic effect in another condition is: A. Constipation caused by codeine B. Cough caused by captopril C. Uterine stimulation caused by quinine D. Diarrhoea caused by ampicillin
Last Answer : A. Constipation caused by codeine
Description : Which of the following is a type B (unpredictable) adverse drug reaction: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Idiosyncrasy D. Physical dependence
Last Answer : A. Side effect
Description : An undesirable effect of a drug that occurs at therapeutic doses and can be predicted from its pharmacological actions is called: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Allergic reaction D. Idiosyncrasy
Description : In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated
Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally
Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level
Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened
Description : In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : B. Digoxin
Description : In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected
Last Answer : D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected
Description : The following drug adverse effect is specially noted in men compared to women: A. Tardive dyskinesia due to neuroleptics B. Levodopa induced abnormal movements C. Ampicillin induced loose motions D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido
Last Answer : D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido
Description : The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to: A. Digoxin B. Salbutamol C. Propranolol D. Nifedipine
Last Answer : A. Digoxin
Description : Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity
Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia
Description : The pharmacokinetics of drugs in the neonate differs from that in adults, because their: A. Intestinal transit is fast B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are overactive C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed D. Glomerular filtration rate is high
Last Answer : C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed
Description : Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug are most marked if it is disposed by: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion D. Hepatic metabolism
Last Answer : D. Hepatic metabolism
Description : The following is a competitive antagonist of GABA but a noncompetitive antagonist of diazepam: A. Picrotoxin B. Muscimol C. Flumazenil D. Bicuculline
Last Answer : D. Bicuculline
Description : The following is not a feature of competitive antagonists: A. Chemical resemblance with the agonist B. Parallel rightward shift of the agonist log doseresponse curve C. Suppression of maximal agonist response D. Apparent reduction in agonist affinity for the receptor
Last Answer : C. Suppression of maximal agonist response
Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist
Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist
Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist
Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist
Description : The antidotal action of sodium nitrite in cyanide poisoning is based on: A. Physical antagonism B. Chemical antagonism C. Physiological antagonism D. Noncompetitive antagonism
Last Answer : B. Chemical antagonism
Description : The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects
Last Answer : D. They have opposite physiological effects
Description : If the effect of combination of two drugs is equal to the sum of their individual effects, the two drugs are exhibiting: A. Potentiation B. Synergism C. Cross tolerance D. Antagonism
Last Answer : B. Synergism
Description : Compared to the drug named within parenthesis, which of the following drugs has a higher potency but lower efficacy: A. Pethidine (morphine) B. Furosemide (hydrochlorothiazide) C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone) D. Enalapril (captopril)
Last Answer : C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone)
Description : The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability
Last Answer : A. Safety
Description : If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective
Last Answer : D. Highly selective
Description : Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving
Last Answer : C. Capacity to produce more intense response