Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye
drops by glaucoma patients because:
A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine
B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow
C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects
D. There are no contraindications to timolol
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects
by

Related questions

Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects

Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

Description : Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle

Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

Description : Pilocarpine reduces intraocular tension in open angle glaucoma by: A. Contracting sphincter pupillae B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle C. Reducing aqueous formation D. Enhancing uveo-scleral outflow

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of ciliary muscle

Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Description : Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Last Answer : A. Is a β1 selective blocker

Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Description : Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Last Answer : A. Is a β1 selective blocker

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect

Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized

Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria C. It is highly effective in acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills ... acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Last Answer : B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

Description : Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

Last Answer : B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be: a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis

Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis  

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Description : Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Last Answer : D. Levobunolol

Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Description : Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Last Answer : D. Levobunolol

The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers C. It produces fewer side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

Description : The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding ... side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

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The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Description : The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Last Answer : B. Physostigmine

The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Description : The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Methacholine

Last Answer : B. Physostigmine

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Gabapentin acts: A. As GABAA agonist B. As precursor of GABA C. By enhancing GABA release D. By GABA independent mechanism

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Verrryy long scenario of old age pt with DM, HTN, hx of multiple cardiac attack, CVA, came for routine check up in PHC, u found bilateral opacification in both lenses, with decreasing of visual acuity, u will: Refer to lazer therapist refer to cataract surgeon refer to ophthalmologist follow up 60-patient on glaucoma medication for weeks came with SOB, cough the cause a- timolol b- betoxolol c- pilocarpin

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Last Answer : a- timolol

A direct-acting cholinomimetic that is lipid-soluble and often used in the treatment of glaucoma is (a) Acetylcholine (b) Bethanechol (c) Physostigmine (d) Pilocarpine (e) Neostigmine

Description : A direct-acting cholinomimetic that is lipid-soluble and often used in the treatment of glaucoma is (a) Acetylcholine (b) Bethanechol (c) Physostigmine (d) Pilocarpine (e) Neostigmine

Last Answer : Ans: D

Pilocarpine is used for: A. Glaucoma B. Paralytic ileus C. Urinary retention D. All of the above

Description : Pilocarpine is used for: A. Glaucoma B. Paralytic ileus C. Urinary retention D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Glaucoma

Pilocarpine is used for: A. Glaucoma B. Paralytic ileus C. Urinary retention D. All of the above

Description : Pilocarpine is used for: A. Glaucoma B. Paralytic ileus C. Urinary retention D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Glaucoma

Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It needs pretreatment fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Description : Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It ... fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Last Answer : A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects

What is considered to be the safe limit of daily alcohol consumption by an adult man in the absence of contraindications and interacting drugs: A. 20-40 ml of ****** B. 50-100 ml of ****** C. 120-180 ml of ****** D. 200-300 ml of ******

Description : What is considered to be the safe limit of daily alcohol consumption by an adult man in the absence of contraindications and interacting drugs: A. 20-40 ml of whisky B. 50-100 ml of whisky C. 120-180 ml of whisky D. 200-300 ml of whisky

Last Answer : B. 50-100 ml of whisky

Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. Increasing cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Description : Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. ... cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Last Answer : B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia

Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting ... production. d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease aqueous humor production.

Last Answer : a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action

Fluconazole offers the following advantage(s) over ketoconazole: A. It is longer acting B. Its absorption from stomach is not dependent on gastric acidity C. It produces fewer side effects D. All of the above

Description : Fluconazole offers the following advantage(s) over ketoconazole: A. It is longer acting B. Its absorption from stomach is not dependent on gastric acidity C. It produces fewer side effects D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Emetine is now used only as a reserve drug for amoebiasis because: A. It is less effective than metronidazole B. It produces a slower response than metronidazole C. It has cardiotoxic potential D. It is not effective in extraintestinal amoebiasis

Description : Emetine is now used only as a reserve drug for amoebiasis because: A. It is less effective than metronidazole B. It produces a slower response than metronidazole C. It has cardiotoxic potential D. It is not effective in extraintestinal amoebiasis

Last Answer : C. It has cardiotoxic potentia

Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who do not require an emergency operation and who have severe weight loss (> 15% of pre-illness body weight) and a serum albumen < 2.9 mg%. Preoperative nutrition (enteral or parenteral) should not be given for longer than 7 to 10 days. Enteral nutrition is always the preferred route of feeding cancer patients if the GI tract is functional. There are several benefits of using the bowel lumen for nutrient delivery. The trophic effects of enteral feeding on small bowel mucosa have been well described. The integrity of the mucosal lining is maintained and it may provide an effective barrier to intraluminal

Description : Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who ... of bowel rest; this atrophy is not reversed by currently available total parenteral nutrition solutions

Last Answer : Which of the following hormones can be expected to be released as part of the stress response? a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Aldosterone c. Insulin d. Epinephrine nswer: a, b, d ... This hormone has the exact opposite effect of insulin, which promotes glucose storage and uptake by the cells

Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Description : Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment. b) Normal tension glaucoma Normal tension ... is treated initially with topical medications, with oral medications added at a later time.

Last Answer : a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or blood pressure C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Description : Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or ... C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

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Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Oxethazaine is used for anaesthetizing gastric mucosa because: A. It is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. It remains largely unionized in acidic medium C. It is highly ionized in acidic medium D. It produces no systemic effects even at high doses

Description : Oxethazaine is used for anaesthetizing gastric mucosa because: A. It is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. It remains largely unionized in acidic medium C. It is highly ionized in acidic medium D. It produces no systemic effects even at high doses

Last Answer : B. It remains largely unionized in acidic medium

Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that: A. It cannot be injected i.v. B. It is not excreted in urine C. It is not bound to transferrin in plasma D. It produces fewer side effects

Description : Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that: A. It cannot be injected i.v. B. It is not excreted in urine C. It is not bound to transferrin in plasma D. It produces fewer side effects

Last Answer : A. It cannot be injected i.v

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Danazol produces the following side effects in premenopausal women except: A. Acne B. Menorrhagia C. Amenorrhoea D. Hot flashes

Description : Danazol produces the following side effects in premenopausal women except: A. Acne B. Menorrhagia C. Amenorrhoea D. Hot flashes

Last Answer : B. Menorrhagia

Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine for augmenting labour because: A. It has brief and titratable action B. It is less likely to cause foetal anoxia C. It is less likely to impede foetal descent D. All of the above

Description : Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine for augmenting labour because: A. It has brief and titratable action B. It is less likely to cause foetal anoxia C. It is less likely to impede foetal descent D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Description : Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Last Answer : C. Elderly obese hypertensives

The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularly C. All hypnotics aggravate sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Description : The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B ... sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening

Last Answer : B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularl

What is true of nimesulide: A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition B. It is preferred for long-term use in rheumatoid arthritis C. It is contraindicated in aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. All of the above

Description : What is true of nimesulide: A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition B. It is preferred for long-term use in rheumatoid arthritis C. It is contraindicated in aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition

Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Description : Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects