Which of the following statements most closely reflects the current status of estrogens in postmenopausal women: A. Estrogens should be prescribed routinely to all menopausal women B. Estrogens should be prescribed when menopausal symptoms are severe C. Estrogens should be prescribed only when there is radiological evidence of osteoporosis D. Estrogens should be prescribed along with a progestin after considering risk:benefit ratio in individual patients

Which of the following statements most closely
reflects the current status of estrogens in postmenopausal women:
A. Estrogens should be prescribed routinely to
all menopausal women
B. Estrogens should be prescribed when
menopausal symptoms are severe
C. Estrogens should be prescribed only when
there is radiological evidence of osteoporosis
D. Estrogens should be prescribed along with a
progestin after considering risk:benefit ratio
in individual patients
by

1 Answer

Answer :

. Estrogens should be prescribed along with a
progestin after considering risk:benefit ratio
in individual patients
by

Related questions

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial infarction due to estrogen B. Blocks the increased risk of endometrial carcinoma due to estrogen C. Reverses vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial ... vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

Last Answer : The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is: A. Ethinylestradiol B. Estradiol benzoate C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Conjugated estrogens

In which of the following conditions estrogen is not the primary drug but is added to progestin as adjuvant: A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding B. Menopausal syndrome C. Osteoporosis D. Atrophic vaginitis

Description : In which of the following conditions estrogen is not the primary drug but is added to progestin as adjuvant: A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding B. Menopausal syndrome C. Osteoporosis D. Atrophic vaginitis

Last Answer : A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is: A. Ethinylestradiol B. Estradiol benzoate C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Conjugated estrogens

Description : The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is: A. Ethinylestradiol B. Estradiol benzoate C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Conjugated estrogens

Last Answer : D. Conjugated estrogen

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. They are used when diuretics alone fail C. They are a substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Description : Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. ... substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Last Answer : D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status classification a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example. b) P4 Classification P4 patients have an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. c) P1 Classification P1 refers to a normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Description : According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status ... normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Last Answer : a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example.

Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient's fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are ... 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the healthy population. B. The presence of gallstones, regardless of the presence of symptoms, is an indication for cholecystectomy in a diabetes patient. C. Diabetes patients with gallstones and chronic biliary pain should be managed nonoperatively with chemical dissolution and/or lithotripsy because of severe complicating medical conditions and a high operative risk. D. The presence of diabetes and gallstones places the patient at high risk for pancreatic cancer. E. Diabetes patients with symptomatic gallstones should have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and g

Description : Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the ... have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and gallbladder necrosis.

Last Answer : Answer: E DISCUSSION: Gallstones have been found to be very prevalent in patients with type II (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, perhaps related to the dyslipoproteinemia in ... added mortality associated with it. There is no causal relationship between diabetes and pancreatic cancer

The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Description : The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Estrogen therapy in postmenopausal women has been implicated in increasing the risk of the following disorders except: A. Gall stones B. Osteoporosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Breast cancer

Description : Estrogen therapy in postmenopausal women has been implicated in increasing the risk of the following disorders except: A. Gall stones B. Osteoporosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Breast cancer

Last Answer : B. Osteoporosis

The following is true of raloxifene except: A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes

Description : The following is true of raloxifene except: A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

Digoxin affords the following benefit/benefits in CHF: A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms B. Reverses the pathological changes of CHF C. Prolongs survival of CHF patients D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

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Last Answer : A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms

Select the compound which used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women serves the purpose of both estrogen and progestin with weak androgenic activity: A. Tibolone B. Mestranol C. Desogestrel D. Gestodene

Description : Select the compound which used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women serves the purpose of both estrogen and progestin with weak androgenic activity: A. Tibolone B. Mestranol C. Desogestrel D. Gestodene

Last Answer : A. Tibolone

The present status of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus is: A. They are the first choice drug in all cases B. They should be prescribed only if the patient refuses insulin injections C. They are used only in type I diabetes mellitus D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

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Last Answer : D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

16.14 Menotropins is a preparation of: A. FSH + LH obtained from urine of menstruating women B. LH obtained from urine of pregnant women C. FSH + LH obtained from urine of menopausal women D. LH obtained from serum of pregnant mare (p. 219

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Last Answer : C. FSH + LH obtained from urine of menopausal women

Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Description : Three medications referred to as the ABC drugs' are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient ... on an empty stomach. Glatiramer acetate is administed by intramuscular injection once a week.

Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement ... the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.

Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Which one of the following statements is false ? Allergic asthma is characterized by: a) Response to cyclosporin therapy in severe disease. b) Is characterised by reversible airways obstruction. c) T2 cells are found in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid. d) Affects 5% of the population. e) Is diagnosed routinely by use of ELISA

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On stoppage of the combined estrogen-progestin contraceptive pill, fertility returns after: A. 1–2 months B. 4–6 months C. 6–12 months D. Uncertain period

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The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in severe heart failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

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Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

The following contraceptive acts primarily by interfering with implantation of blastocyst: A. Gossypol B. Centchroman C. Combined estrogen-progestin pill D. Phased pill

Description : The following contraceptive acts primarily by interfering with implantation of blastocyst: A. Gossypol B. Centchroman C. Combined estrogen-progestin pill D. Phased pill

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The currently used injectable hormonal contraceptive contains: A. Long acting progestin B. Long acting estrogen C. Both long acting estrogen and progestin D. Chorionic gonadotropin

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Last Answer : A. Long acting progestin

The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and LH release C. Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Description : The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and ... Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Last Answer : B. Suppression of FSH and LH release

A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Description : A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Last Answer : C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation

The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Description : The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own

The most popular form of hormonal contraception is: A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill B. Phased estrogen + progestin oral pill C. Postcoital estrogen + progestin pill D. Depot progestin injection

Description : The most popular form of hormonal contraception is: A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill B. Phased estrogen + progestin oral pill C. Postcoital estrogen + progestin pill D. Depot progestin injection

Last Answer : A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill

Side effects of cyclic progestin therapy include the following except: A. Headache B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Breast dyscomfort D. Irregular bleeding

Description : Side effects of cyclic progestin therapy include the following except: A. Headache B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Breast dyscomfort D. Irregular bleeding

Last Answer : D. Irregular bleeding

Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of androgenic activity: A. Micronized oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Description : Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of ... oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Last Answer : Select the indication for which a progestin is used alone without combining with an estrogen: A. Threatened abortion B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding C. Hormone replacement therapy D. Premenstrual tension

Bone resorption is accelerated by: A. Estrogens B. Parathormone C. Bisphosphonates D. Calcitonin

Description : Bone resorption is accelerated by: A. Estrogens B. Parathormone C. Bisphosphonates D. Calcitonin

Last Answer : B. Parathormone

Estrogens are palliative in the following malignancy: A. Carcinoma breast B. Carcinoma cervix C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Carcinoma prostate

Description : Estrogens are palliative in the following malignancy: A. Carcinoma breast B. Carcinoma cervix C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Carcinoma prostate

Last Answer : D. Carcinoma prostate

Metabolic actions of estrogens tend to cause the following except: A. Anabolism B. Impaired glucose tolerance C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol D. Salt and water retention

Description : Metabolic actions of estrogens tend to cause the following except: A. Anabolism B. Impaired glucose tolerance C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol D. Salt and water retention

Last Answer : C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol

Estrogens exert the following actions except: A. Cornification of vaginal epithelium B. Proliferation of endometrium C. Maturation of graafian follicle D. Anabolism

Description : Estrogens exert the following actions except: A. Cornification of vaginal epithelium B. Proliferation of endometrium C. Maturation of graafian follicle D. Anabolism

Last Answer : C. Maturation of graafian follicle

A combination of two or more antiepileptic drugs is used: A. Routinely in all types of epilepsy B. In all cases of complex partial seizures C. In all cases of secondarily generalized seizures D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Description : A combination of two or more antiepileptic drugs is used: A. Routinely in all types of epilepsy B. In all cases of complex partial seizures C. In all cases of secondarily generalized seizures D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Last Answer : D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Benefits of tamoxifen citrate therapy include the following except: A. Reduction in recurrence rate of breast cancer B. Improved bone mass C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes D. Improved lipid profile

Description : Benefits of tamoxifen citrate therapy include the following except: A. Reduction in recurrence rate of breast cancer B. Improved bone mass C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes D. Improved lipid profile

Last Answer : C. Suppression of menopausal hot flushes

Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension

Description : Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension

Last Answer : D. To reduce intraocular tension

Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension

Description : Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension

Last Answer : D. To reduce intraocular tension

Systemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of (a) Exfoliative dermatitis (b) Posterior uveitis (c) Acute rheumatic fever (d) Hodgkin’s disease

Description : Systemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of (a) Exfoliative dermatitis (b) Posterior uveitis (c) Acute rheumatic fever (d) Hodgkin’s disease

Last Answer : Ans: C

Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination is used as clinical curative but is not recommended for prophylaxis of malaria because of: A. Risk of megaloblastic anaemia due to pyrimethamine B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine C. Need for daily administration of the d

Description : Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination is used as clinical curative but is not recommended for prophylaxis of malaria because of: A. Risk of megaloblastic anaemia due to pyrimethamine B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine C. Need for daily administration of the d

Last Answer : B. Risk of severe dermatological reactions to sulfadoxine

Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Description : Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) have been proven correct by prospective trials? a. Preoperative TPN is beneficial in surgical patients with severe preoperative nutrition b. Postoperative TPN is of value following pancreatic resection c. Routine use of perioperative (including prior to the procedure) TPN is of benefit in patients undergoing hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Description : A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) ... hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Numerous clinical trials have failed to yield a consensus with regard to the efficacy of TPN in cancer patients. In 1991, a multicenter VA cooperative trial demonstrated ... patients receiving bone marrow transplantation has also been shown to be a valuable component of overall care

The following drug is routinely used in preanaesthetic medication for prolonged operations: A. Atropine B. Morphine C. Promethazine D. Ranitidine

Description : The following drug is routinely used in preanaesthetic medication for prolonged operations: A. Atropine B. Morphine C. Promethazine D. Ranitidine

Last Answer : D. Ranitidine

Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Description : Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Last Answer : C. Herpes simplex keratitis

As an antacid, sodium bicarbonate has the following disadvantages except: A. It causes acid rebound B. In ulcer patients, it increases risk of perforation C. It has low acid neutralizing capacity D. It is contraindicated in hypertensives

Description : As an antacid, sodium bicarbonate has the following disadvantages except: A. It causes acid rebound B. In ulcer patients, it increases risk of perforation C. It has low acid neutralizing capacity D. It is contraindicated in hypertensives

Last Answer : C. It has low acid neutralizing capacity

The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Description : The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Last Answer : C. It is antigenic

Use of morphine in the following category of patients does not carry any special risk: A. Ischaemic heart disease patients B. Bronchial asthma patients C. Elderly male patients D. Biliary colic patients

Description : Use of morphine in the following category of patients does not carry any special risk: A. Ischaemic heart disease patients B. Bronchial asthma patients C. Elderly male patients D. Biliary colic patients

Last Answer : A. Ischaemic heart disease patients

Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs are indicated in rheumatoid arthritis: A. In place of NSAIDs in patients who donot tolerate the latter B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive disease C. Only when NSAIDs fail to afford symptomatic relief D. In all patients irrespective of disease status/ concurrent medication

Description : Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs are indicated in rheumatoid arthritis: A. In place of NSAIDs in patients who donot tolerate the latter B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive ... to afford symptomatic relief D. In all patients irrespective of disease status/ concurrent medication

Last Answer : B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive disease

The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Description : The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan's syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. ... kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Last Answer : a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis.

Eradication of H.pylori along with gastric antisecretory drugs affords the following benefit(s): A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster ulcer healing C. Reduced chance of ulcer relapse D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Eradication of H.pylori along with gastric antisecretory drugs affords the following benefit(s): A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster ulcer healing C. Reduced chance of ulcer relapse D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Some physicians suggest that women supplement their diets with antacids to supply additional amounts of a certain element thought to reduce the risk of osteoporosis. The ingredient in antacids which provides this element is: w) calcium carbonate x) aluminum hydroxide y) magnesium hydroxide z) simethicone

Description : Some physicians suggest that women supplement their diets with antacids to supply additional amounts of a certain element thought to reduce the risk of osteoporosis. The ingredient in antacids which ... element is: w) calcium carbonate x) aluminum hydroxide y) magnesium hydroxide z) simethicone 

Last Answer : ANSWER: W -- CALCIUM CARBONATE