Description : Bisphosphonates are indicated in the following condition: A. Organophosphate poisoning B. Dementia C. Steven’s Johnson syndrome D. Osteoporosis
Last Answer : D. Osteoporosis
Description : The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug
Last Answer : A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
Description : Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction
Last Answer : A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in eld
Description : Riboflavin deficiency can cause (A) Peripheral neuritis (B) Diarrhoea (C) Angular stomatitis (D) None of these
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : Ptosis and mydriasis are seen in: a. Facial palsy b. Peripheral neuritis c. Oculomotor palsy d. Sympathetic palsy
Last Answer : ANSWER: C
Description : The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases
Last Answer : A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy
Description : The following calcium channel blocker is specifically indicated to counteract cerebral vasospasm and neurological sequelae following subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Lacidipine B. Nimodipine C. Nicardipine D. Nitrendipine
Last Answer : B. Nimodipine
Description : .Fluoridation is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community water supply to optimum levels for caries prevention. Which of the following statement is correct? A. Tooth decay ... in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissures D. Fluoridation increases vulnerability to osteoporosis
Last Answer : C. Greater reduction in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissures
Description : Bisphosphonates are beneficial in the following conditions except: A. Paget's disease B. Senile osteoporosis C. Rickets D. Osteolytic bony metastasis
Last Answer : C. Rickets
Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Which of the following statements most closely reflects the current status of estrogens in postmenopausal women: A. Estrogens should be prescribed routinely to all menopausal women B. ... should be prescribed along with a progestin after considering risk:benefit ratio in individual patients
Last Answer : . Estrogens should be prescribed along with a progestin after considering risk:benefit ratio in individual patients
Description : In which of the following conditions estrogen is not the primary drug but is added to progestin as adjuvant: A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding B. Menopausal syndrome C. Osteoporosis D. Atrophic vaginitis
Last Answer : A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Description : Estrogen therapy in postmenopausal women has been implicated in increasing the risk of the following disorders except: A. Gall stones B. Osteoporosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Breast cancer
Last Answer : B. Osteoporosis
Description : The following is not a legitimate indication for the use of anabolic steroids: A. To enhance the physical ability of sportsmen B. Suboptimal growth in children C. Senile osteoporosis D. Hypoplastic anaemia
Last Answer : A. To enhance the physical ability of sportsmen
Description : Which of the following bones is affected more by glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis: A. Lumber vertebra B. Humerus C. Radius D. Femur
Last Answer : A. Lumber vertebra
Description : The following adverse effect of corticosteroids is mainly due to their mineralocorticoid action: A. Osteoporosis B. Rise in blood pressure C. ‘Moon face’ D. Increased susceptibility to infection
Last Answer : B. Rise in blood pressure
Description : Consider the following statements about the soils of India : [IAS 2004] 1. High temperature during most of the year retards formation of humus 2. Soils which have humus require regular application of chemical fertilizers to remove nitrogen ... ) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Last Answer : Ans: (b)
Description : Before servicing the device indicated as 'A' in panels #1 and #3 of the illustration, the device labeled 'CT' must __________. EL-0003 A. have the disconnected leads taped to prevent ... D. have one lead grounded to discharge static electricity for the prevention of damage to electronic components
Last Answer : Answer: C
Description : Saline osmotic purgatives are used for: A. Treatment of constipation B. Prevention of constipation in patients of piles C. Avoidance of straining at stools in patients of hernia D. Tapeworm infestation: following niclosamide administration
Last Answer : D. Tapeworm infestation: following niclosamide administration
Description : Indications for the use of antiplatelet drugs include the following except: A. Secondary prophylaxis of myocardial infarction B. Unstable angina pectoris C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Stroke prevention in patients with transient ischaemic attacks
Last Answer : C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Description : The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin
Last Answer : B. Warfarin
Description : The most clear cut beneficial results are obtained in the use of anticoagulants for the following purpose: A. Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction B. Prevention of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism C. Cerebrovascular accident D. Retinal artery thrombosis
Last Answer : A. Prevention of recurrences of myocardial infarction
Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia
Last Answer : D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia
Description : Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism ... Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias
Last Answer : B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity
Description : Intensive insulin therapy: A. Prevents the aggressive development of atherosclerosis in diabetic patients. B. Is not associated with unawareness of hypoglycemia. C. Improves peripheral neuropathy. D. ... . E. Is indicated in all patients with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM).
Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Intensive insulin therapy is indicated in patients with IDDM who can actively participate in their own management and the attainment of the goals set for ... or prevents progression of these complications; however, better glucose control may improve peripheral neuropathy
Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect
Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation
Description : Methyldopa lowers BP by: A. Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone C. Generating α-methyl ... as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic nerve endings D. Activating vascular dopamine receptors
Last Answer : B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone
Description : The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels
Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels
Description : The following drug is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility: A. Cyclandelate B. Theophylline C. Pentoxiphylline D. Nicotinic acid
Last Answer : C. Pentoxiphylline
Description : The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in ... 's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect
Last Answer : B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease
Description : The following statement is true about endogenous opioid peptides: A. They activate only μ opioid recepors B. They do not occur in peripheral tissues C. They mediate stress induced analgesia D. Naloxone fails to antagonise their actio
Last Answer : C. They mediate stress induced analgesia
Description : Morphine produces analgesia by acting at: A. Peripheral pain receptors B. A spinal site C. Supraspinal sites D. Both spinal and supraspinal sites
Last Answer : D. Both spinal and supraspinal sites
Description : Entacapone differs from tolcapone in the following respect/respects: A. It is shorter acting B. It acts only by inhibiting peripheral metabolism of levodopa C. It is not hepatotoxic D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct
Description : The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the on-off ' effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian ... D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines
Last Answer : . At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines
Description : Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine
Last Answer : A. It is nonexplosive
Description : Ergometrine is contraindicated in the following conditions except: A. Multiparity B. Toxaemia of pregnancy C. Pelvic sepsis D. Peripheral vascular disease
Last Answer : A. Multiparity
Description : The aim of iodine therapy before subtotal thyroidectomy in Grave’s disease is: A. To render the patient euthyroid B. To restore the iodine content of the thyroid gland C. To inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine into triiodothyronine D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland
Last Answer : D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland
Description : Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine
Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine
Description : The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Methimazole C. Carbimazole D. Radioactive iodine
Last Answer : A. Propyl thiouracil
Description : ntithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues
Last Answer : A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis
Description : Antithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues
Last Answer : . Inhibit thyroxine synthesis
Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization
Last Answer : D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about ipratropium bromide: A. It preferentially dilates peripheral bronchioles B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol C. As metered dose inhaler it is used for terminating asthma attacks D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Last Answer : B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol
Description : Select the drug which inhibits cyclooxygenase in the brain but not at peripheral sites of inflammation: A. Nimesulide B. Paracetamol C. Ketorolac D. Mephenamic acid
Last Answer : B. Paracetamol
Description : Choose the correct statement about nonopioid analgesics: A. All have antiinflammatory property B. All lack dependence producing liability C. All act exclusively at peripheral pain mechanisms D. All inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
Last Answer : B. All lack dependence producing liability
Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation
Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms
Description : Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because: A. They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action B. They are less likely to affect gastric emptying C. They are less likely to alter bowel movement D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Select the hypocholesterolemic drug which interferes with intestinal absorption of bile salts and cholesterol, and secondarily increases cholesterol turnover in the liver: A. Gemfibrozil B. Cholestyramine C. Lovastatin D. Bezafibrate
Last Answer : B. Cholestyramine
Description : Choose the correct statement about severity of side effects to oral iron medication: A. Ferrous salts are better tolerated than ferric salts B. Complex organic salts of iron are better ... better tolerated than tablets D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication
Last Answer : D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication