The following calcium channel blocker is specifically indicated to counteract cerebral vasospasm and neurological sequelae following subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Lacidipine B. Nimodipine C. Nicardipine D. Nitrendipine

The following calcium channel blocker is specifically
indicated to counteract cerebral vasospasm and
neurological sequelae following subarachnoid
haemorrhage:
A. Lacidipine
B. Nimodipine
C. Nicardipine
D. Nitrendipine
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Nimodipine
by

Related questions

With regard to cerebral autoregulation: a. cerebral blood flow is constant over a diastolic blood pressure of 60 to 140 mmHg b. autoregulation is lost during the acute phase of subarachnoid haemorrhage c. it is impaired in hypercapnia d. it is impaired in hypoxia

Description : With regard to cerebral autoregulation: a. cerebral blood flow is constant over a diastolic blood pressure of 60 to 140 mmHg b. autoregulation is lost during the acute phase of subarachnoid haemorrhage c. it is impaired in hypercapnia d. it is impaired in hypoxia

Last Answer : it is impaired in hypoxia

Ticlopidine is recommended for the following except: A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke B. Transient ischaemic attacks C. To prevent occlusion of coronary artery bypass graft D. Intermittent claudication

Description : Ticlopidine is recommended for the following except: A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke B. Transient ischaemic attacks C. To prevent occlusion of coronary artery bypass graft D. Intermittent claudication

Last Answer : A. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke

Features of methylcobalamin include the following: A. It is an active coenzyme form of vit B12 B. It is required for the synthesis of S-adenosyl methionine C. It is specifically indicated for correcting neurological defects of vit B12 deficiency D. All of the above

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Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms

The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

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Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule

The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Description : The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Last Answer : A. Calcium channel blocker

The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine

Description : The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine

Last Answer : C. Flunarizine

The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above

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Last Answer : A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Description : Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Last Answer : B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis

Anticoagulant medication is indicated in: A. Immobilized elederly patients B. Buerger’s disease C. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis D. All of the above

Description : Anticoagulant medication is indicated in: A. Immobilized elederly patients B. Buerger’s disease C. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Immobilized elederly patients

The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

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Last Answer : A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker

The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: A. Coronary vasospasm B. Thrombus formation C. Vagal activation D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the hear

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Last Answer : D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart

The most important risk in the use of sumatriptan for treatment of migraine is: A. Precipitation of seizures B. Precipitation of psychosis C. Development of hypertension D. Coronary vasospasm

Description : The most important risk in the use of sumatriptan for treatment of migraine is: A. Precipitation of seizures B. Precipitation of psychosis C. Development of hypertension D. Coronary vasospasm

Last Answer : D. Coronary vasospasm

Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure

Description : Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure

Last Answer : C. Pernicious anaemia

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

Indications of ergometrine include the following except: A. Postpartum haemorrhage B. Inadequate uterine involution C. Uterine inertia during labour D. Uterine atony after cesarean section

Description : Indications of ergometrine include the following except: A. Postpartum haemorrhage B. Inadequate uterine involution C. Uterine inertia during labour D. Uterine atony after cesarean section

Last Answer : C. Uterine inertia during labour

Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Description : Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle

Medicinal calcium salts are indicated for: A. Prevention of osteoporosis B. Hastening fracture union C. Peripheral neuritis D. All of the above

Description : Medicinal calcium salts are indicated for: A. Prevention of osteoporosis B. Hastening fracture union C. Peripheral neuritis D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Prevention of osteoporosis

A patient treated with capsule oxytetracycline 500 mg 6 hourly complained of epigastric pain. Which of the following measures will you recommend to counteract the side effect: A. Take the capsules with milk B. Take the capsules with meals C. Take aluminium hydroxide gel 15 minutes before the capsules D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing

Description : A patient treated with capsule oxytetracycline 500 mg 6 hourly complained of epigastric pain. Which of the following measures will you recommend to counteract the side effect: A. Take the capsules ... capsules D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing

Last Answer : D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing

Potassium therapy tends to counteract the cardiac toxicity of digitalis by: A. Reducing the affinity of sarcolemal Na+ K+ATPase for digitalis B. Suppressing ectopic automaticity enhanced by digitalis C. Promoting A-V conduction D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of androgenic activity: A. Micronized oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Description : Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of ... oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Last Answer : Select the indication for which a progestin is used alone without combining with an estrogen: A. Threatened abortion B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding C. Hormone replacement therapy D. Premenstrual tension

The distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Description : The distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

he distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Description : he distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Description : The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium

The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Description : The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Description : The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Last Answer : A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy

Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris, because: A. They antagonise each other’s side effects B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load C. Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce ca

Description : Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris, because: A. They antagonise each other's side effects B. Nitrates primarily ... primarily reduce after-load C. Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce ca

Last Answer : B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load

Frequency dependent cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by: A. Verapamil B. Nifedipine C. Felodipine D. Amlodipin

Description : Frequency dependent cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by: A. Verapamil B. Nifedipine C. Felodipine D. Amlodipin

Last Answer : A. Verapamil

The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart B. They have no effect on A-V conduction C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels D. All of the above

Description : The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart B. They have no effect on A-V conduction C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The preferred regimen for preventing duodenal ulcer relapse is: A. Maintenance antacid regimen B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen C. On demand intermittent H2 blocker regimen D. Maintenance sucralfate regimen

Description : The preferred regimen for preventing duodenal ulcer relapse is: A. Maintenance antacid regimen B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen C. On demand intermittent H2 blocker regimen D. Maintenance sucralfate regimen

Last Answer : B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen

Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine

Description : Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine

Last Answer : A. Cimetidine

For healing duodenal ulcer the usual duration of H2 blocker therapy is: A. 4 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 12 weeks

Description : For healing duodenal ulcer the usual duration of H2 blocker therapy is: A. 4 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 12 weeks

Last Answer : C. 8 weeks

The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Description : The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Last Answer : DD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

ostoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker: A. d-tubocurarine B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium

Description : ostoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker: A. d-tubocurarine B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium

Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine

Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release

Description : Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release

Last Answer : B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

The neuromuscular blocker that does not need reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the operation is: A. d-Tubocurarine B. Doxacurium C. Pipecuronium D. Mivacurium

Description : The neuromuscular blocker that does not need reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the operation is: A. d-Tubocurarine B. Doxacurium C. Pipecuronium D. Mivacurium

Last Answer : D. Mivacurium

Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Description : Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Last Answer : C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection

CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 23.1 Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker: A. Succinylcholine B. Vecuronium C. Decamethonium D. Dantrolene sodium

Description : CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 23.1 Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker: A. Succinylcholine B. Vecuronium C. Decamethonium D. Dantrolene sodium

Last Answer : B. Vecuronium

Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Description : Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has additional α1 blocking property

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Vasomotor reversal phenomenon after administration of an α adrenergic blocker is seen with: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. All of the above drugs

Description : Vasomotor reversal phenomenon after administration of an α adrenergic blocker is seen with: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. All of the above drugs

Last Answer : A. Adrenaline

Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma

Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Description : Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has additional α1 blocking property

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is: A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotoxine D. Tolazoline

Description : The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is: A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotoxine D. Tolazoline

Last Answer : B. Ergotamine

Vasomotor reversal phenomenon after administration of an α adrenergic blocker is seen with: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. All of the above drugs

Description : Vasomotor reversal phenomenon after administration of an α adrenergic blocker is seen with: A. Adrenaline B. Noradrenaline C. Isoprenaline D. All of the above drugs

Last Answer : A. Adrenaline

Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma

Clinical applications of quinine include the following except: A. Uncomplicated chloroquine resistant malaria B. Cerebral malaria C. To induce abortion D. Nocturnal leg cramps

Description : Clinical applications of quinine include the following except: A. Uncomplicated chloroquine resistant malaria B. Cerebral malaria C. To induce abortion D. Nocturnal leg cramps

Last Answer : C. To induce abortion