Description : Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or ... C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness
Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery
Description : Select the muscle relaxant that is used to control spasticity associated with upper motor neurone paralysis: A. Vecuronium B. Succinylcholine C. Chlorzoxazone D. Baclofen
Last Answer : D. Baclofen
Description : he following anthelmintic acts as a cholinergic agonist in the nematodes and causes spastic paralysis of the worms: A. Piperazine B. Pyrantel pamoate C. Mebendazole D. Thiabendazole
Last Answer : B. Pyrantel pamoate
Description : The most probable mechanism of action of mebendazole is: A. Depolarization of membrane and spastic paralysis of the worm B. Hyperpolarization of membrane and flaccid paralysis of the worm C. Loss of ... inhibition of glucose uptake in the worm D. Tegument damage and leakage of contents of the worm
Last Answer : C. Loss of intracellular microtubules and inhibition of glucose uptake in the worm
Description : Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Stimulant purgatives are contraindicated in the following: A. Bed ridden patients B. Before abdominal radiography C. Spastic constipation D. Atonic constipation
Last Answer : C. Spastic constipation
Description : What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : ostoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker: A. d-tubocurarine B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium
Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine
Description : The most rapidly acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent which can be used as an alternative to succinylcholine for tracheal intubation is: A. Rocuronium B. Pancuronium C. Doxacurium D. Pipecuronium
Last Answer : A. Rocuronium
Description : Which of the following drugs undergoes ‘Hofmann’ elimination: A. Succinylcholine B. Pancuronium C. Vecuronium
Last Answer : D. Atracurium
Description : Select the skeletal muscle relaxant that is commonly used for endotracheal intubation despite causing histamine release, K+ efflux from muscles and cardiovascular changes: A. Pipecuroniun B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Cisatracurium
Description : CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 23.1 Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker: A. Succinylcholine B. Vecuronium C. Decamethonium D. Dantrolene sodium
Last Answer : B. Vecuronium
Description : The most suitable laxative for a patient of irritable bowel disease with spastic constipation is: A. Dietary fibre B. Liquid paraffin C. Bisacodyl D. Senna
Last Answer : A. Dietary fibre
Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation
Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms
Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier
Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria
Description : The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin
Last Answer : A. Doxycycline
Description : Clozapine is considered to be an atypical neuroleptic because: A. It has weak antidopaminergic action but high antipsychotic efficacy B. Its side effect profile is different from that of chlorpromazine C. It is not a phenothiazine derivative D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Which of the following is an atypical neuroleptic drug: A. Loxapine B. Olanzapine C. Pimozide D. Flupenthixol
Last Answer : B. Olanzapin
Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. ... , carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria
Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a syndrome caused by the human retrovirus (HIV-1) that infects T lymphocytes and causes severe immunosuppression. Individuals who ... to prolong survival when administered early in the course of disease and is considered routine therapy
Description : Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure in: A. Diuretic treated patients B. Patients having low plasma renin activity C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals D. Untreated CHF patient
Last Answer : A. Diuretic treated patients
Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect
Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action
Description : Dexamphetamine produces an apparently paradoxical effect in: A. Addicts B. Athletes C. Parkinsonian patients D. Hyperkinetic children
Last Answer : Hyperkinetic children
Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol
Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects
Last Answer : . Hyperkinetic children
Description : Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis
Last Answer : C. Histamine release
Description : Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction
Last Answer : C. Muscle paralysis
Description : Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous wastes in – (1) Frogs (2) Birds (3) Fishes (4) Mankind
Last Answer : (2) Birds Explanation: Land snails, insects, birds, and some reptiles excrete uric acid as the major nitrogenous waste. The white, crystalline substance seen in a typical bird or lizard "poop" is actually urine: a little pool of uric acid crystals in a very small amount of water.
Description : Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body in the form of uric acid are (a) birds and lizards (b) frogs and cartilaginous fish (c) insects and bony fish (d) mammals and molluscs.
Last Answer : (a) birds and lizards
Description : Uricotelism is found in (a) mammals and birds (b) fish and fresh water protozoans (c) birds, land reptiles and insects (d) frogs and toads.
Last Answer : (c) birds, land reptiles and insects
Description : Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous wastes in (1) Frogs (2) Birds (3) Fishes (4) Mankind
Last Answer : Birds
Description : The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudocholinesterase is: A. Methacholine B. Bethanechol C. Benzoylcholine D. Butyrylcholine
Last Answer : B. Bethanechol
Description : Pseudocholinesterase differs from true cholinesterase in that: A. It does not hydrolyse acetylcholine B. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at a slower rate C. It is more susceptible to inhibition by physostigmine D. It is the only form of circulating cholinesterase
Last Answer : B. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at a slower rate
Description : Depolarizing block may be done by A. Atracurium B. Neostegmin C. Succinylcholine D. rocuronuim
Description : The following is true about use of prednisolone in malignant diseases except: A. It is curative in acute childhood leukaemia B. It is used in Hodgkin’s disease C. It controls hypercalcaemia in patients with bony metastasis D. It affords symptomatic relief in most cancer patients
Last Answer : A. It is curative in acute childhood leukaemia
Description : Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like reaction on taking alcohol: A. Dacarbazine B. Procarbazine C. Melphalan D. Hydroxyurea
Last Answer : B. Procarbazine
Description : The effects of diethyl carbamazine citrate in filariasis include the following except: A. Rapid symptomatic relief in acute filarial attack B. Renders filarial patients noninfective to mosquitoes ... Prolonged treatment may achieve radical cure by killing adult filarial worms lodged in lymphatics
Last Answer : C. Prolonged treatment induces regression of filarial elephantiasis
Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally
Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients
Description : According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito
Last Answer : D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibitor
Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C
Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl
Description : Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above
Description : Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir
Last Answer : B. Foscarnet
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients
Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis
Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test
Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient
Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'