Description : Dexamphetamine produces an apparently paradoxical effect in: A. Addicts B. Athletes C. Parkinsonian patients D. Hyperkinetic children
Last Answer : . Hyperkinetic children
Description : The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the on-off ' effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian ... D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines
Last Answer : . At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines
Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Description : In parkinsonian patients levodopa exerts the following effects except: A. Reduces skeletal muscle contractility B. Decreases muscle tone C. Increases locomotor activity D. Inhibits muscle tremor
Last Answer : A. Reduces skeletal muscle contractility
Description : The drug of choice for hyperkinetic children is: A. Methylphenidate B. Nikethamide C. Caffeine D. Clonazepam
Last Answer : A. Methylphenidate
Description : The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia
Last Answer : B. Tardive dyskinesia
Description : The following drug is used to reverse the CNS depression produced by diazepam: A. Dexamphetamine B. Doxapram C. Physostigmine D. Flumazenil
Last Answer : D. Flumazenil
Description : Select the drug that suppresses essential tremor, but not parkinsonian tremor: A. Procyclidine B. Propranolol C. Promethazine D. Prochlorperazine
Last Answer : B. Propranolol
Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect
Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles
Last Answer : C. Atrial fibrillation
Description : Select the opioid antagonist that is preferred for long term opioid blockade therapy of post addicts: A. Nalorphine B. Naloxone C. Naltrexone D. Nalbuphine
Last Answer : C. Naltrexone
Description : Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure in: A. Diuretic treated patients B. Patients having low plasma renin activity C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals D. Untreated CHF patient
Last Answer : A. Diuretic treated patients
Description : Succinylcholine produces spastic paralysis in: A. Rabbits B. Frogs C. Birds D. Patients with atypical pseudocholinesterase
Last Answer : C. Birds
Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol
Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects
Description : Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS? (a) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person. (b) Drug addicts are least ... and nutrition. (d) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers.
Last Answer : (d) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers.
Description : Radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice for the following category of thyrotoxic patients: A. Children B. Young adults with recent oneset of Grave’s disease C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease D. Pregnant women
Last Answer : C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease
Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient
Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders
Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil
Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect
Description : Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Last Answer : A. Symptomatic relief
Description : The following antiepileptic drug is likely to cause hyponatremia as a side effect, especially in elderly patients: A. Primidone B. Carbamazepine C. Phenytoin D. Sodium valproate
Last Answer : B. Carbamazepine
Description : Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy C. In patients not responding to carbimazole D. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine
Last Answer : A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops
Description : The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved
Last Answer : A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients
Description : Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos
Last Answer : A. Placebo is a dummy medication
Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of shock? a. The primary difference between dopamine and dobutamine is the absence of significant a ... b-adrenergic effect, is a particularly useful agent in the treatment of all forms of shock
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Therapeutic adjustments of intravascular volume (preload) and systemic vascular resistance (afterload) form the basis of the treatment strategies for all ... careful constant monitoring of arterial pressure and repeated hemodynamic measurements with a pulmonary artery catheter
Description : Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc
Description : Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect
Last Answer : C. It does not have antiandrogenic action
Description : The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels
Last Answer : B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
Description : Digoxin produces the following effect(s) in atrial flutter: A. Reduces ventricular rate B. Prevents shift of A-V block to a lower grade C. Converts atrial flutter to atrial fibrillation D. All of the above
Description : The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect
Last Answer : A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morph
Description : The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose
Last Answer : B. It produces sedation as a side effect
Description : elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide
Last Answer : C. Buspirone
Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop
Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect
Last Answer : B. More potent α adrenergic blocking than β blocking activity
Description : Is it that the US produces superior athletes, or the fact the US is so large the percent of good athletes are a given?
Last Answer : Doping.
Description : Sodium valproate should be used with caution in young children because they are particularly at risk of developing the following adverse effect: A. Hepatitis B. Loss of hair C. Anorexia D. Tremor
Last Answer : A. Hepatitis
Description : The following is true about use of prednisolone in malignant diseases except: A. It is curative in acute childhood leukaemia B. It is used in Hodgkin’s disease C. It controls hypercalcaemia in patients with bony metastasis D. It affords symptomatic relief in most cancer patients
Last Answer : A. It is curative in acute childhood leukaemia
Description : Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like reaction on taking alcohol: A. Dacarbazine B. Procarbazine C. Melphalan D. Hydroxyurea
Last Answer : B. Procarbazine
Description : The effects of diethyl carbamazine citrate in filariasis include the following except: A. Rapid symptomatic relief in acute filarial attack B. Renders filarial patients noninfective to mosquitoes ... Prolonged treatment may achieve radical cure by killing adult filarial worms lodged in lymphatics
Last Answer : C. Prolonged treatment induces regression of filarial elephantiasis
Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally
Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients
Description : According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito
Last Answer : D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibitor
Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C
Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl
Description : Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above
Description : Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir
Last Answer : B. Foscarnet
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients
Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis
Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test
Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient
Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'