Local anaesthetics block nerve conduction by: A. Blocking all cation channels in the neuronal membrane B. Hyperpolarizing the neuronal membrane C. Interfering with depolarization of the neuronal membrane D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Local anaesthetics block nerve conduction by:
A. Blocking all cation channels in the neuronal membrane
B. Hyperpolarizing the neuronal membrane
C. Interfering with depolarization of the neuronal membrane
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Interfering with depolarization of the neuronal membrane
by

Related questions

The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor only from the intraneuronal face of the Na+ channel C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form

Description : The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor ... the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form

Last Answer : C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

e primary mechanism by which general anaesthetics produce their action is: A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones B. Blocking voltage sensitive Na+ channels in neuronal membrane C. Depressing metabolic activity of cerebral neurones D. Blocking production of high energy phosphates in the brain

Description : e primary mechanism by which general anaesthetics produce their action is: A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones B. Blocking voltage sensitive Na+ channels in neuronal ... activity of cerebral neurones D. Blocking production of high energy phosphates in the brain

Last Answer : A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones

The GABAB receptor: A. Is an intrinsic ion channel containing receptor B. Mediates neuronal depolarization C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline D. Regulates intracellular cAMP

Description : The GABAB receptor: A. Is an intrinsic ion channel containing receptor B. Mediates neuronal depolarization C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline D. Regulates intracellular cAMP

Last Answer : C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline

The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

Description : The following is true of propafenone except: A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker B. It markedly delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels C. It has additional β-adrenergic blocking property D. It slows anterograde as well as retrograde conduction in the WPW bypass tract

Last Answer : A. It is a weak Na+ channel blocker

The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

Description : The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

Last Answer : D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

The primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is: A. Dopamine antagonism B. Adenosine antagonism C. Opening of neuronal chloride channels D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

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Last Answer : D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

Depolarization of axolemma during nerve conduction takes place because of (a) equal amount of Na+ and K+ move out across axolemma (b) Na+ move inside and K+ move more outside (c) more Na+ outside (d) none of these.

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Last Answer : (b) Na+ move inside and K+ move more outside

Toxicity of local anaesthetics involves the following organs except: A. Heart B. Brain C. Kidney D. Skin and subcutaneous tissue

Description : Toxicity of local anaesthetics involves the following organs except: A. Heart B. Brain C. Kidney D. Skin and subcutaneous tissue (p. 324)

Last Answer : D. Dibucaine

Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres B. More slender fibres have shorter internodal distances C. Small sensory fibres generate higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade

Description : Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently ... higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade

Last Answer : A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres

The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic

Description : The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic

Last Answer : D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesth

The clinically used local anaesthetics have the following common features except: A. They are amphiphilic weak bases B. They are used for surgery in non-cooperative patients C. In their use, care of vital functions is generally not needed D. They are safer than general anaesthetics in patients with respiratory and cardiovascular disease

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Last Answer : B. They are used for surgery in non-cooperative patients

The most probable mechanism of action of mebendazole is: A. Depolarization of membrane and spastic paralysis of the worm B. Hyperpolarization of membrane and flaccid paralysis of the worm C. Loss of intracellular microtubules and inhibition of glucose uptake in the worm D. Tegument damage and leakage of contents of the worm

Description : The most probable mechanism of action of mebendazole is: A. Depolarization of membrane and spastic paralysis of the worm B. Hyperpolarization of membrane and flaccid paralysis of the worm C. Loss of ... inhibition of glucose uptake in the worm D. Tegument damage and leakage of contents of the worm

Last Answer : C. Loss of intracellular microtubules and inhibition of glucose uptake in the worm

The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

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Last Answer : A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci

The electrophysiological effects of digitalis on Purkinje fibres include the following except: A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential B. Decrease in the slope of phase-0 depolarization C. Increase in the rate of phase-4 depolarization D. Abbreviation of action potential duration

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Last Answer : A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

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The pain sensation a. arises from stimulation of free nerve endings b. is transmitted to the central nervous system by unmyelinated C fibres c. is transmitted to the brain via the spinothalamic tracts d. is reduced by local anaesthetics through reduction of the potassium influx into the nerve fibres

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As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve. c- Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduce post operative swelling. d- Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root. e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual ... e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve.

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve ADC M07 C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising ... root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

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n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia

Description : n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia

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Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia

Amiloride inhibits K+ excretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts by blocking: A. Electrogenic K+ channels B. Electrogenic Na+ channels C. Nonelectrogenic Na+-Cl– symport D. H+K+ATPase

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Ergotamine relieves migraine by: A. Blocking vascular α adrenergic receptors B. Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors C. Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

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Tetrodotoxin blocks nerve impulse/junctional transmission by: A. Anticholinergic action B. Depleting acetylcholine C. Blocking Na+ channels D. Blocking Ca2+ channels

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Last Answer : C. Blocking Na+ channels

Tetrodotoxin blocks nerve impulse/junctional transmission by: A. Anticholinergic action B. Depleting acetylcholine C. Blocking Na+ channels D. Blocking Ca2+ channels

Description : Tetrodotoxin blocks nerve impulse/junctional transmission by: A. Anticholinergic action B. Depleting acetylcholine C. Blocking Na+ channels D. Blocking Ca2+ channels

Last Answer : C. Blocking Na+ channels

The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart B. They have no effect on A-V conduction C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels D. All of the above

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Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching

Description : Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching

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Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant actions C. The BZD receptor is homogeneous at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

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Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones

The site of action of d-tubocurarine is: A. Spinal internuncial neurone B. Motor nerve ending C. Muscle end-plate D. Sodium channels in the muscle fibre

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Last Answer : C. Muscle end-plate

The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

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General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

Description : General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

Last Answer : D. Spinal cord

Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Description : Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Sodium valproate has been shown to: A. Prolong neuronal Na+ channel inactivation B. Attenuate ‘T’ type Ca2+ current in neurones C. Inhibit degradation of GABA by GABA-transaminase D. All of the above

Description : Sodium valproate has been shown to: A. Prolong neuronal Na+ channel inactivation B. Attenuate ‘T’ type Ca2+ current in neurones C. Inhibit degradation of GABA by GABA-transaminase D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

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Last Answer : D. Increased vagal tone

Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization b) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. c) PR interval The PR interval is a component of an ECG tracing reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the AV node. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization b) P ... QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization

Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low. b) T wave The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or “peaked” if a patient’s serum potassium level is high. c) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may ... interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low.

The dihydropyridines block the following type of calcium channels: A. L-type voltage sensitive channels B. T-type voltage sensitive channels C. N-type voltage sensitive channels D. Receptor operated calcium channels

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Last Answer : A. L-type voltage sensitive channels

Anthelmintic action of piperazine is due to: A. Interference with ATP generation in the worm B. Blockade of glucose uptake by the worm C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action D. Depolarization of nematode muscle by activating nicotinic receptors

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Last Answer : C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action

Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings: A. By depolarizing the axonal membrane B. By mobilizing Ca2+ C. By a nonexocytotic process D. Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

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Last Answer : C. By a nonexocytotic process

The following are true about the sodium channels: a. they are made up of polypeptide chains b. have the highest densities at the nodes of Ranvier c. open in response to depolarization d. remain open as long as depolarization is maintained

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Last Answer : have the highest densities at the nodes of Ranvier

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Select the antibiotic which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by interfering with translocation of elongating peptide chain from acceptor site back to the peptidyl site of the ribosome so that ribosome does not move along the mRNA and the peptide chain is prematurely terminated: A. Chloramphenicol B. Erythromycin C. Tetracycline D. Streptomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by interfering with translocation of elongating peptide chain from acceptor site back to the peptidyl site of the ribosome so that ... chain is prematurely terminated: A. Chloramphenicol B. Erythromycin C. Tetracycline D. Streptomycin

Last Answer : B. Erythromycin

Select the class of antibiotics which act by interfering with bacterial protein synthesis, but are bactericidal: A. Tetracyclines B. Aminoglycosides C. Macrolides D. Lincosamides

Description : Select the class of antibiotics which act by interfering with bacterial protein synthesis, but are bactericidal: A. Tetracyclines B. Aminoglycosides C. Macrolides D. Lincosamides

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Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin

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Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

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The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : C. Phenytoin

The following contraceptive acts primarily by interfering with implantation of blastocyst: A. Gossypol B. Centchroman C. Combined estrogen-progestin pill D. Phased pill

Description : The following contraceptive acts primarily by interfering with implantation of blastocyst: A. Gossypol B. Centchroman C. Combined estrogen-progestin pill D. Phased pill

Last Answer : B. Centchroman

In the neurone: a. the magnitude of the action potential is dependent on the strength of the stimulus b. impulses can travel in both direction c. depolarization is accompanied by increased permeability of the cell membrane to potassium ions d. during depolarization, the potential of the neurone changes from -70mV to +40mV

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Last Answer : during depolarization, the potential of the neurone changes from -70mV to +40mV