Toxicity of local anaesthetics involves the following organs except: A. Heart B. Brain C. Kidney D. Skin and subcutaneous tissue

Toxicity of local anaesthetics involves the following
organs except:
A. Heart
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Skin and subcutaneous tissue (p. 324)
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Dibucaine
by

Related questions

The clinically used local anaesthetics have the following common features except: A. They are amphiphilic weak bases B. They are used for surgery in non-cooperative patients C. In their use, care of vital functions is generally not needed D. They are safer than general anaesthetics in patients with respiratory and cardiovascular disease

Description : The clinically used local anaesthetics have the following common features except: A. They are amphiphilic weak bases B. They are used for surgery in non-cooperative patients C. In their ... needed D. They are safer than general anaesthetics in patients with respiratory and cardiovascular disease

Last Answer : B. They are used for surgery in non-cooperative patients

Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure than after it C. It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity

Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Makes the injection less painful

Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres B. More slender fibres have shorter internodal distances C. Small sensory fibres generate higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade

Description : Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently ... higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade

Last Answer : A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres

Local anaesthetics block nerve conduction by: A. Blocking all cation channels in the neuronal membrane B. Hyperpolarizing the neuronal membrane C. Interfering with depolarization of the neuronal membrane D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Local anaesthetics block nerve conduction by: A. Blocking all cation channels in the neuronal membrane B. Hyperpolarizing the neuronal membrane C. Interfering with depolarization of the neuronal membrane D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Interfering with depolarization of the neuronal membrane

The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor only from the intraneuronal face of the Na+ channel C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form

Description : The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor ... the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form

Last Answer : C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state

The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic

Description : The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic

Last Answer : D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesth

An organ which is extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity is (A) Liver (B) Brain (C) Kidney (D) Heart

Description : An organ which is extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity is (A) Liver (B) Brain (C) Kidney (D) Heart

Last Answer : Answer : B

Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required

Description : Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required

Last Answer : A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis

Glucose entry into the cells of the following organ/ tissue is highly dependent on the presence of insulin: A. Brain B. Liver C. Adipose tissue D. Kidney tubules

Description : Glucose entry into the cells of the following organ/ tissue is highly dependent on the presence of insulin: A. Brain B. Liver C. Adipose tissue D. Kidney tubules

Last Answer : C. Adipose tissue

The characteristic toxicity of doxorubicin is: A. Kidney damage B. Liver damage C. Cardiomyopathy D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Description : The characteristic toxicity of doxorubicin is: A. Kidney damage B. Liver damage C. Cardiomyopathy D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

The pain sensation a. arises from stimulation of free nerve endings b. is transmitted to the central nervous system by unmyelinated C fibres c. is transmitted to the brain via the spinothalamic tracts d. is reduced by local anaesthetics through reduction of the potassium influx into the nerve fibres

Description : The pain sensation a. arises from stimulation of free nerve endings b. is transmitted to the central nervous system by unmyelinated C fibres c. is transmitted to the brain via the ... d. is reduced by local anaesthetics through reduction of the potassium influx into the nerve fibres

Last Answer : is transmitted to the brain via the spinothalamic tracts

Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia

Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system

Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system

Last Answer : B. Kidney

In which diseases of the following organs, isoenzymes LDH-1 and LDH-2 will be released in plasma? (A) Kidney, R.B.C and Liver (B) Heart, Kidney and R.B.C (C) Heart, Kidney and Liver (D) Heart, Lungs and Brain

Description : In which diseases of the following organs, isoenzymes LDH-1 and LDH-2 will be released in plasma? (A) Kidney, R.B.C and Liver (B) Heart, Kidney and R.B.C (C) Heart, Kidney and Liver (D) Heart, Lungs and Brain

Last Answer : Answer : B

‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans? (a) Brain (b) Heart (c) Kidney (d) Pancreas

Description : ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans? (a) Brain (b) Heart (c) Kidney (d) Pancreas

Last Answer : (b) Heart

Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Description : Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Last Answer : C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects

The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Description : The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Last Answer : B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain of the fluid, which will likely demonstrate multiple bacteria including predominantly gram-positive rods b. A CT scan is indicated in a stable patient to define the extent of the disease c. Broad spectrum antibiotics followed with prompt extensive debridement is indicated d. A safe guideline is to resect infected necrotic tissue so that a several centimeter margin of grossly normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

A purulent inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue A. Erythema B. Ecchymosis C. Cellulitis

Description : A purulent inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue A. Erythema B. Ecchymosis C. Cellulitis

Last Answer : Ans: C

Of the three layers of the skin, which is the thick, fat-containing layer? A. dermis B. epidermis C. epithelium D. subcutaneous tissue

Description : Of the three layers of the skin, which is the thick, fat-containing layer? A. dermis B. epidermis C. epithelium D. subcutaneous tissue

Last Answer : Ans: D

Skin becomes wrinkled in the old age due to (a) loss of elastic tissue in the dermis (b) considerable slag in the rate of dividing cells in the stratum germinativum (c) gradual loss of elasticity in the subcutaneous layer (d) all of these

Description : Skin becomes wrinkled in the old age due to (a) loss of elastic tissue in the dermis (b) considerable slag in the rate of dividing cells in the stratum germinativum (c) gradual loss of elasticity in the subcutaneous layer (d) all of these

Last Answer : Ans:(b)

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

A layer of dead skin cells is found in the: a) subcutaneous tissue b) dermis c) epidermis d) no dead cells are in the skin

Description : A layer of dead skin cells is found in the: a) subcutaneous tissue b) dermis c) epidermis d) no dead cells are in the skin 

Last Answer : ANSWER: C -- EPIDERMIS

Labourers who do hard manual labour develop thick skin on their palms and soles due to : (1) thick epidermis (2) thick dermis (3) thick subcutaneous tissue (4) All of these

Description : Labourers who do hard manual labour develop thick skin on their palms and soles due to : (1) thick epidermis (2) thick dermis (3) thick subcutaneous tissue (4) All of these

Last Answer : All of these

Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy C. Ventricular tachycardia in a child who has accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min ... accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy

Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching

Description : Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching

Last Answer : C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics

General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

Description : General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

Last Answer : D. Spinal cord

The preferred route of administration of streptokinase in acute myocardial infarction is: A. Intravenous B. Subcutaneous C. Intracoronary

Description : The preferred route of administration of streptokinase in acute myocardial infarction is: A. Intravenous B. Subcutaneous C. Intracoronary

Last Answer : A. Intravenous

The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

Description : The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Warfarin

Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Description : Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Last Answer : A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in eld

The primary route of administration of insulin is: A. Intradermal B. Subcutaneous C. Intramuscular D. Intravenous

Description : The primary route of administration of insulin is: A. Intradermal B. Subcutaneous C. Intramuscular D. Intravenous

Last Answer : B. Subcutaneous

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve. c- Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduce post operative swelling. d- Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root. e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual ... e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve.

Which of the following local anaesthetics is indicated in case of the need to long acting one after a surgical operation, A. Lidocaine B. Mepivacaine C. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)

Description : Which of the following local anaesthetics is indicated in case of the need to long acting one after a surgical operation, A. Lidocaine B. Mepivacaine C. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)

Last Answer : C. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve ADC M07 C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising ... root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling

Ketone bodies are synthesized from fatty acid oxidation products by which of the following organs? (A) Liver (B) Skeletal muscles (C) Kidney (D) Brain

Description : Ketone bodies are synthesized from fatty acid oxidation products by which of the following organs? (A) Liver (B) Skeletal muscles (C) Kidney (D) Brain

Last Answer : Answer : A

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure? (a) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment. (b) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure. (c) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active. (d) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney.

Description : Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure? (a) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment. (b) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure. (c) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active. (d) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney.

Last Answer : d) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney.

Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions

Description : Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions

Last Answer : B. Antivagal action

Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression

Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities

Description : Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities

Last Answer : C. Kidney damage

The following statements are true about imipenem except: A. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, but neither a penicillin nor a cephalosporin B. It is rapidly degraded in the kidney C. It is safe in epileptics D. It is always given in combination with cilastatin

Description : The following statements are true about imipenem except: A. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, but neither a penicillin nor a cephalosporin B. It is rapidly degraded in the kidney C. It is safe in epileptics D. It is always given in combination with cilastatin

Last Answer : C. It is safe in epileptics

The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

Description : The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

Last Answer : D. Volume overload

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Which one of the following organs excretes water, fat and various catabolic wastes? (1) Kidney (2) Skin (3) Spleen (4) Salivary glands

Description : Which one of the following organs excretes water, fat and various catabolic wastes? (1) Kidney (2) Skin (3) Spleen (4) Salivary glands

Last Answer : (1) Kidney Explanation: The kidneys are essential in the urinary system and also serve homeostatic functions such as the regulation of electrolytes, maintenance of acid-base balance, and regulation of ... a natural filter of the blood, and remove wastes which are diverted to the urinary bladder.

Which one of the following organs excretes water, fat and various catabolic wastes? (1) Kidney (2) Skin (3) Spleen (4) Salivary glands

Description : Which one of the following organs excretes water, fat and various catabolic wastes? (1) Kidney (2) Skin (3) Spleen (4) Salivary glands

Last Answer : (1) Kidney Explanation: The kidneys are essential in the urinary system and also serve homeostatic functions such as the regulation of electrolytes, maintenance of acid-base balance, and regulation of ... a natural filter of the blood, and remove wastes which are diverted to the urinary bladder.

Which one of the following organs excretes water, fat and various catabolic wastes ? (1) Kidney (2) Skin (3) Spleen (4) Salivary glands

Description : Which one of the following organs excretes water, fat and various catabolic wastes ? (1) Kidney (2) Skin (3) Spleen (4) Salivary glands

Last Answer : Kidney

Calcitriol synthesis involves (A) Both liver and kidney (B) Intestine (C) Adipose tissue (D) Muscle

Description : Calcitriol synthesis involves (A) Both liver and kidney (B) Intestine (C) Adipose tissue (D) Muscle

Last Answer : Answer : A

Which of the following is not true of the blood-brain barrier: A. It is constituted by tight junctions between the endothelial cells of brain capillaries and the glial tissue B. It allows passage of lipid soluble drugs into the brain C. It limits entry of highly ionized drugs into the brain D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood

Description : Which of the following is not true of the blood-brain barrier: A. It is constituted by tight junctions between the endothelial cells of brain capillaries and the glial tissue B. It allows passage ... of highly ionized drugs into the brain D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood

Last Answer : D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood