Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril
Last Answer : A. Nifedipine
Description : The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine
Last Answer : C. Flunarizine
Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet
Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia
Last Answer : C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia
Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil
Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect
Description : Maximal medical therapy for treating angina pectoris is represented by which of the following choices? (a) Diltiazem, verapamil, nitroglycerin (b) Atenolol, isoproterenol, diltiazem (c) Verapamil, nifedipine, propranolol (d) Isosorbide, atenolol, diltiazem (e) Nitroglycerin, isosorbide, atenolol
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin
Last Answer : B. Adenosine
Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine
Last Answer : B. Verapami
Description : The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide
Last Answer : TA. Nifedipine + hydralazine
Description : Persistent dry cough may occur as a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Enalapril B. Atenolol C. Diltiazem D. Methyldopa
Last Answer : A. Enalapril
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Last Answer : C. Verapami
Description : Frequency dependent cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by: A. Verapamil B. Nifedipine C. Felodipine D. Amlodipin
Last Answer : A. Verapamil
Description : Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Clonidine B. Captopril C. Verapamil D. Prazosin
Last Answer : B. Captopril
Description : An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the ... likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine
Description : A drug lacking vasodilator properties that is useful in angina is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) Metoprolol (c) NIfedipine (d) Nitroglycerin (e) Verapamil
Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate
Description : Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms
Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori
Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect
Description : The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia
Last Answer : B. Tardive dyskinesia
Description : The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack: A. Isosorbide dinitrate B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate C. Diltiazem D. Dipyridamole
Last Answer : A. Isosorbide dinitrate
Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Amiodarone
Description : Tricyclic antidepressants abolish the antihypertensive action of the following drug: A. Enalapril B. Clonidine C. Atenolol D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Clonidine
Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone
Last Answer : A. Lignocaine
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole
Last Answer : A. Propranolol
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril
Last Answer : A. Clonidine
Description : The following drug has been found to improve urine flow in elderly males with benign prostatic hypertrophy: A. Nifedipine B. Prazosin C. Disopyramide D. Imipramine
Last Answer : B. Prazosin
Description : Which of the following tocolytics used for suppressing labour is most likely to compromise placental perfusion: A. Salbutamol B. Ethyl alcohol C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nifedipine
Last Answer : D. Nifedipine
Description : A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked ... has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol
Description : The following antiepileptic drug is likely to cause hyponatremia as a side effect, especially in elderly patients: A. Primidone B. Carbamazepine C. Phenytoin D. Sodium valproate
Last Answer : B. Carbamazepine
Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect
Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation
Description : The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose
Last Answer : B. It produces sedation as a side effect
Description : Adrenergic β1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity
Last Answer : C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris
Description : Adrenergic β 1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity
Description : Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits: A. Terminate anginal attacks B. Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks C. Retard the progression of coronary artery disease D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Which of the following drugs is preferred for termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (a) Digoxin (b) Quinidine (c) Propranolol (d) Verapamil
Description : Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide
Last Answer : C. Esmolo
Description : Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following effects except: A. Flushing B. Tachycardia C. Diuresis D. Rise in body temperature
Last Answer : D. Rise in body temperature
Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Dipyridamole
Description : Choose the most suitable antihypertensive drug for a 45-year-old male company executive who has a travelling job. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, and he is a diabetic ... → rebound hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide: May worsen diabetes; more likely to produce weakness, fatigue and impotenc
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone
Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine
Description : The following antiepileptic drug is most likely to impair learning and memory, and produce behavioral abnormalities in children: A. Valproic acid B. Phenobarbitone C. Phenytoin D. Ethosuximide
Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone
Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects
Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic
Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects
Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects
Description : Which prokinetic drug(s) produce(s) extrapyramidal side effects: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Metoclopramide
Description : The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case
Last Answer : D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced cases