Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : A. Erythromycin
Description : Select the drug that is neither bronchodilator nor antiinflammatory, but has antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizing activity: A. Sodium cromoglycate B. Ketotifen C. Beclomethasone dipropionate D. Chlorpheniramine
Last Answer : B. Ketotifen
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Description : Select the H1 antihistaminic which is used topically in the nose for allergic rhinitis: A. Loratadine B. Cetirizine C. Fexofenadine D. Azelastine
Last Answer : D. Azelastine
Description : Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine
Last Answer : A. Sertraline
Description : Select the antihistaminic which modulates calcium channels and has prominant labyrinthine suppressant property: A. Cyproheptadine B. Cinnarizine C. Clemastine D. Cetirizine
Last Answer : B. Cinnarizine
Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon
Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide
Description : Select the correct statement about Naloxone: A. It equally blocks μ, κ and δ opioid receptors B. It blocks μ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others C. It blocks κ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others D. It blocks δ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others
Last Answer : B. It blocks μ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others
Description : High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine
Last Answer : A. Diphenhydramine
Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action
Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action
Description : The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation ... active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro
Last Answer : C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant
Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori
Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect
Description : The following second generation anti-histaminic is not likely to produce ventricular arrhythmias when administered along with ketoconazole: A. Mizolastine B. Ebastine C. Terfenadine D. Astemizole
Last Answer : A. Mizolastine
Description : The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels
Last Answer : B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
Description : The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of ... for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine
Last Answer : A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol
Description : The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine
Last Answer : C. Cyproheptadine
Description : Select the drug that suppresses essential tremor, but not parkinsonian tremor: A. Procyclidine B. Propranolol C. Promethazine D. Prochlorperazine
Last Answer : B. Propranolol
Description : Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs ... to cause immunosuppression. d) Antineoplastic agents Antineoplastic agents are known to cause immunosuppression.
Last Answer : a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.
Description : The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored
Description : Which of the following is seen at low (analgesic) doses of aspirin: A. Respiratory stimulation B. Increased occult blood loss in stools C. Increased cardiac output D. Hyperglycaemia
Last Answer : B. Increased occult blood loss in stools
Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously
Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells
Description : Choose the most suitable antihypertensive drug for a 45-year-old male company executive who has a travelling job. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, and he is a diabetic ... → rebound hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide: May worsen diabetes; more likely to produce weakness, fatigue and impotenc
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs
Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs
Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels
Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
Description : What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs
Last Answer : B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression
Description : The opioid antidiarrhoeal drugs act by the following mechanism(s): A. They relax the intestinal smooth muscle B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis C. They promote clearance of intestinal pathogens Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis
Description : The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit
Last Answer : B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa
Description : ntithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues
Last Answer : A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis
Description : Antithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues
Last Answer : . Inhibit thyroxine synthesis
Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin
Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till ... restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi
Last Answer : A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term
Description : The plasma half life of aspirin (along with salicylic acid released from it): A. Remains constant irrespective of dose B. Is longer for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic ... for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose D. Can be shortened by acidifying urine
Last Answer : B. Is longer for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose
Description : At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride
Last Answer : C. Acetazolamide
Description : The following diuretic acts on the luminal membrane of distal tubule and collecting ducts to inhibit electrogenic Na+ reabsorption so that K+ excretion is diminished and bicarbonate excretion is enhanced: A. Xipamide B. Isosorbide C. Triamterene D. Spironolactone
Last Answer : C. Triamterene
Description : Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes? (A) Chlorpromazine (B) Astemizole (C) Haloperidol (D) Domperidone
Last Answer : (B) Astemizole
Description : The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is: A. Prochlorperazine B. Ondansetron C. Metoclopramide D. Promethazine
Last Answer : B. Ondansetron
Description : A patient returning from dinner party meets with road accident and has to be urgently operated upon under general anaesthesia. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to hasten his gastric emptying: A. Methylpolysiloxane B. Promethazine C. Metoclopramide D. Apomorphine
Description : The most effective antimotion sickness drug suitable for short brisk journies is: A. Promethazine theoclate B. Cinnarizine C. Prochlorperazine D. Hyoscine
Last Answer : D. Hyoscine
Description : The following drug is routinely used in preanaesthetic medication for prolonged operations: A. Atropine B. Morphine C. Promethazine D. Ranitidine
Last Answer : D. Ranitidine
Description : The isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is expressed constitutively at the following site: A. Gastric mucosa B. Neutrophils C. Blood platelets D. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Last Answer : D. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Description : The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is: A. It is not inhibited by indomethacin B. It is inducible C. It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa D. It is found only in foetal tissues
Last Answer : B. It is inducible
Description : Fexofenadine differs from terfenadine in that: A. It undergoes high first pass metabolism in liver B. It is a prodrug C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels D. It has high affinity for central H1 receptors
Last Answer : C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels
Description : Granisetron is a: A. Second generation antihistaminic B. Drug for peptic ulcer C. Antiemetic for cancer chemotherapy D. New antiarrhythmic drug
Last Answer : C. Antiemetic for cancer chemotherapy
Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines
Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines
Description : Select the drug that can help restore cardiac performance as well as prolong survival in CHF patients: A. Spironolactone B. Furosemide C. Dobutamine D. Metoprolol
Last Answer : D. Metoprolol
Description : Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam
Last Answer : C. Ketamine
Description : Potassium therapy tends to counteract the cardiac toxicity of digitalis by: A. Reducing the affinity of sarcolemal Na+ K+ATPase for digitalis B. Suppressing ectopic automaticity enhanced by digitalis C. Promoting A-V conduction D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : Amiloride inhibits K+ excretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts by blocking: A. Electrogenic K+ channels B. Electrogenic Na+ channels C. Nonelectrogenic Na+-Cl– symport D. H+K+ATPase
Last Answer : B. Electrogenic Na+ channels