Description : Which of the following organisms is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly ? (a) Streptococcus pyogenes (b) Meningococcus (c) Treponema pallidum (d) Escherichia coli
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability
Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer
Description : A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : D. Erythromycin
Description : Amoebic dysentery is caused by - (1) Entameeba histolytica (2) Salmonella typhi (3) E. coil (4) Streptococcus pyogenes
Last Answer : (1) Entameeba histolytica Explanation: Amoebic dysentery (or amebic dysentery) is a type of dysentery caused primarily by the amoeba Entamoeba histolytica. Amoebic dysentery is transmitted through ... survive long outside of the human gastrointestinal tract, and are a purely diagnostic observation.
Description : Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning? a. Streptococcus Pyogenes b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Pseudomonas Fluorescens d. Streptococcus Epidermidis
Last Answer : b. Staphylococcus Aureus.
Last Answer : b. Staphylococcus Aureus
Description : Streptococcus pyogenes is highly contagious by _____. a. Unwashed hands b. Oral/fecal route c. Respiratory droplets d. Remaining on surfaces for long periods of time
Last Answer : c. Respiratory droplets
Description : Which of the following is staphylococcal infection: A. Scarlet fever (Streptococcus pyogenes)Bright red tongue with a "strawberry" appearance Forchheimer spots (fleeting small, red spots on ... inflammation, caused by viral infection, idiopathic, Mycobacterium t C. Pancreatitis no D. Carbuncle
Last Answer : D. Carbuncle
Description : Amoebic dysentery is caused by (1) Entamoeba histolytica (2) Salmonella typhi (3) E. coli (4) Streptococcus pyogenes
Last Answer : Entamoeba histolytica
Description : Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism: A. Bactericidal + Bactericidal B. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism C. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism D. Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic
Last Answer : B. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism
Description : Antimicrobial drug combinations are aimed at achieving the following except: A. Faster and more complete elimination of the infecting organism B. Treat infection when nature and sensitivity of the infecting organism is not definite C. Prevent emergence of resistant strains D. Prevent superinfection
Last Answer : D. Prevent superinfection
Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : The fluoroquinolones have improved over nalidixic acid in the following respect(s): A. They have higher antimicrobial potency B. They have extended antimicrobial spectrum C. Development of bacterial resistance against them is slow and infrequent D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment
Description : Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against: A. Bateroides fragilis B. Treponema pallidum C. Streptococci D. Staphylococci
Last Answer : a
Description : Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium? A. Strept pyogenes B. Staph aureus C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Last Answer : ANSWER: D
Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen
Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI
Description : Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat with both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection: A. Clarithromycin B. Clindamycin C. Linezolid D. Lincomycin
Last Answer : C. Linezolid
Description : Teicoplanin has the following feature(s): A. Antimicrobial activity and indications similar to vancomycin B. Long elimination half-life C. Efficacy in systemic infections by oral route D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Compared to erythromycin, azithromycin has: A. Extended antimicrobial spectrum B. Better gastric tolerance C. Longer duration of action D. All of the above
Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria
Last Answer : B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
Description : Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas: A. Nalidixic acid B. Azithromycin C. Bacampicillin D. Pefloxacin
Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid
Description : The following quinolone antimicrobial agent is not useful in systemic infections: A. Lomefloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Nalidixic acid D. Pefloxacin
Last Answer : C. Nalidixic acid
Description : Antimicrobial prophylaxis is regularly warranted in the following: A. Chronic obstructive lung disease patients B. Neonates delivered by forceps C. Anastomotic intestinal surgery D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Anastomotic intestinal surgery
Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : A. Tetracycline
Description : Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin
Description : 4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should ... antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea
Last Answer : B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved
Description : The following diarrhoea is consistently benefited by antimicrobial therapy: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Cholera C. Salmonella diarrhoeas D. Traveller’s diarrhoea
Last Answer : B. Cholera
Description : Antimicrobial treatment does not alter the course of the following diarrhoeas except: A. Mild enterotoxigenic E.coli diarrhoea B. Campylobacter diarrhoea C. Coeliac disease diarrhoea D. Food poisoning diarrhoea
Last Answer : B. Campylobacter diarrhoea
Description : An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol
Last Answer : C. Norfloxacin
Description : Institution of oral rehydration therapy has the following beneficial effect in diarrhoea: A. Stops further diarrhoea B. Restores hydration and electrolyte balance without affecting diarrhoea C. Hastens clearance of the enteropathogen D. Obviates the need for specific antimicrobial therapy
Last Answer : B. Restores hydration and electrolyte balance without affecting diarrhoea
Description : Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum
Last Answer : C. Herpes simplex keratitis
Description : .In developing plaque; the adhesive polymer produced by streptococcus mutans is synthesis from: A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Lactose E. Amylose
Last Answer : C. Sucrose
Description : Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism ? (a) Bactericidal + Bactericidal (b) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism (c) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism (d) Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Indicate the disease in which penicillin G continues to be used as first line treatment in all cases (unless contraindicated), because the causative organism has not developed resistance so far: A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis C. Staphylococcal abscess D. Haemophillus influenzae meningiti
Last Answer : B. Syphilis
Description : Which one of the following options gives the correct match of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection? Disease Causative Mode of organism infection (a) Typhoid Salmonella ... infected bancrofti water and food (d) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male vivax Anopheles mosquito
Last Answer : (a) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired typhi air
Description : Which one of the following organisms was NOT a model organism related the birth of molecular genetics? a. Streptococcus b. Penicillium c. Escherichia d. neurospora
Last Answer : c. Escherichia
Last Answer : You will find the number on the other page of the electricity bill paper.
Last Answer : Written by Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay.
Last Answer : Muhammad Shahidullah is a writer of rural literature
Last Answer : Rangpur located **********
Description : Diethyl carbamazine citrate has the following action in filariasis: A. Rapidly kills adult filarial worms and stops production of microfilariae B. Kills circulating microfilariae C. Kills microfilariae present in nodules and serous fluids D. Promotes phagocytosis of circulating microfilariae
Last Answer : D. Promotes phagocytosis of circulating microfilaria
Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity
Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical
Description : Choose the antimalarial drug effective against multidrug resistant P. falciparum, which rapidly terminates an attack of malarial fever, but has a short duration of action, so that recrudescence is common: A. Proguanil B. Mefloquine C. Amodiaquine D. Artemisinin
Last Answer : D. Artemisinin
Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli
Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response
Description : The following statements are true about imipenem except: A. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, but neither a penicillin nor a cephalosporin B. It is rapidly degraded in the kidney C. It is safe in epileptics D. It is always given in combination with cilastatin
Last Answer : C. It is safe in epileptics
Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed
Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules
Description : Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy: A. Factor VII B. Factor IX C. Factor X D. Prothrombin
Last Answer : A. Factor VII
Description : A semiconscious patient of haemorrhagic cerebral stroke has been brought to the emergency. His blood pressure is 240/120 mmHg. Select the procedure to lower his blood pressure as ... injection of hydralazine C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside D. Intravenous injection of clonidin
Last Answer : C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprussid
Description : ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis