Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease ? (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Cephalexin (d) Ethambutol
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : D. Erythromycin
Description : A patient of congestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and digoxin. He developed urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials should be avoided: A. Ampicillin B. Gentamicin C. Norfloxacin D. Cotrimoxazole
Last Answer : B. Gentamicin
Description : Antimicrobial prophylaxis is regularly warranted in the following: A. Chronic obstructive lung disease patients B. Neonates delivered by forceps C. Anastomotic intestinal surgery D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Anastomotic intestinal surgery
Description : A single oral dose of the following antibiotic is curative in most patients of nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Doxycycline B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Cotrimoxazole
Last Answer : B. Azithromycin
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability
Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer
Description : Tetracycline is indicated in the following form(s) of amoebic infection: A. Acute amoebic dysentery B. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis C. Amoebic liver abscess D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis
Description : Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills ... acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease
Last Answer : B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria
Description : Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial concentration in the urinary tract but not in other tissues: A. Pefloxacin B. Amikacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Cephalexin
Last Answer : C. Nitrofurantoin
Description : Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin that is highly resistant to gram negative β-lactamases, and cures penicillinase positive as well as negative gonococcal infection by a single intramuscular dose: A. Cephalexin B. Cefuroxime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftazidime
Last Answer : B. Cefuroxime
Description : Select the antibiotic that has a high therapeutic index: A. Streptomycin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : C. Cephalexin
Description : Antimicrobial treatment does not alter the course of the following diarrhoeas except: A. Mild enterotoxigenic E.coli diarrhoea B. Campylobacter diarrhoea C. Coeliac disease diarrhoea D. Food poisoning diarrhoea
Last Answer : B. Campylobacter diarrhoea
Description : Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone
Last Answer : D. Furazolidone
Description : Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin
Last Answer : D. Nitrofurantoin
Description : The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone
Last Answer : C. Chloramphenicol
Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin
Last Answer : C. Ciprofloxacin
Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline
Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Indicate the condition in which neither trimethoprim nor sulfamethoxazole alone are effective, but their combination cotrimoxazole is: A. Prostatitis B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D. Bacillary dysentery
Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month
Last Answer : C. 6 months
Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months
Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months
Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc
Description : In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course
Last Answer : B. Initial two months
Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin
Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin
Description : The characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is: A. Hepatitis B. Visual defects C. Vestibular disturbance D. Renal damage
Last Answer : B. Visual defects
Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible
Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children
Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide
Last Answer : C. Ethambutol
Description : The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide
Last Answer : B. Rifampin
Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : D. Ethambutol
Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin
Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine
Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
Description : Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Last Answer : C. Sulfinpyrazone
Description : Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ... gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver
Last Answer : B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria
Description : What steps can one take to avoid cancer, and could most cancer patients have avoided the disease?
Last Answer : The only thing of the things you list that is proven is don’t smoke. Maybe working in an environment with cancer causing agents—maybe.
Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen
Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI
Description : Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat with both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection: A. Clarithromycin B. Clindamycin C. Linezolid D. Lincomycin
Last Answer : C. Linezolid
Description : Teicoplanin has the following feature(s): A. Antimicrobial activity and indications similar to vancomycin B. Long elimination half-life C. Efficacy in systemic infections by oral route D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Compared to erythromycin, azithromycin has: A. Extended antimicrobial spectrum B. Better gastric tolerance C. Longer duration of action D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria
Last Answer : B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
Description : The fluoroquinolones have improved over nalidixic acid in the following respect(s): A. They have higher antimicrobial potency B. They have extended antimicrobial spectrum C. Development of bacterial resistance against them is slow and infrequent D. All of the above
Description : Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas: A. Nalidixic acid B. Azithromycin C. Bacampicillin D. Pefloxacin
Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid
Description : The following quinolone antimicrobial agent is not useful in systemic infections: A. Lomefloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Nalidixic acid D. Pefloxacin
Last Answer : C. Nalidixic acid
Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment
Description : Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism: A. Bactericidal + Bactericidal B. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism C. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism D. Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic
Last Answer : B. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism
Description : Antimicrobial drug combinations are aimed at achieving the following except: A. Faster and more complete elimination of the infecting organism B. Treat infection when nature and sensitivity of the infecting organism is not definite C. Prevent emergence of resistant strains D. Prevent superinfection
Last Answer : D. Prevent superinfection
Description : The following organism is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly: A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Meningococcus C. Treponema palli
Last Answer : D. Escherichia coli
Description : Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin
Description : 4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should ... antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea
Last Answer : B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved
Description : The following diarrhoea is consistently benefited by antimicrobial therapy: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Cholera C. Salmonella diarrhoeas D. Traveller’s diarrhoea
Last Answer : B. Cholera
Description : An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol
Last Answer : C. Norfloxacin