Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism ? (a) Bactericidal + Bactericidal (b) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism (c) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism (d) Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic

Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism ? (a) Bactericidal + Bactericidal (b) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism (c) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism (d) Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic
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Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism: A. Bactericidal + Bactericidal B. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism C. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism D. Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic

Description : Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism: A. Bactericidal + Bactericidal B. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism C. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism D. Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic

Last Answer : B. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism

What is break point concentration of an antibiotic ? (a) Concentration at which the antibiotic lyses the bacteria (b) Concentration of the antibiotic which demarks between sensitive and resistant bacteria (c) Concentration of the antibiotic which overcomes bacterial resistance (d) Concentration at which a bacteriostatic antibiotic becomes bactericidal

Description : What is break point concentration of an antibiotic ? (a) Concentration at which the antibiotic lyses the bacteria (b) Concentration of the antibiotic which demarks between sensitive ... which overcomes bacterial resistance (d) Concentration at which a bacteriostatic antibiotic becomes bactericidal

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides ? (a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation (b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble (c) They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract (d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Description : Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides ? (a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation (b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are ... in the urinary tract (d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Last Answer : Ans: B

Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b) Is active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin (c) Is more active against Mycobacterium avium complex (d) Does not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate? (a) It is bacteriostatic (b) It binds to PBPs (c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase (d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability (e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use

Description : Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate? (a) It is bacteriostatic (b) It binds to PBPs (c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase (d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability (e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease ? (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Cephalexin (d) Ethambutol

Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease ? (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Cephalexin (d) Ethambutol

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following organisms is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly ? (a) Streptococcus pyogenes (b) Meningococcus (c) Treponema pallidum (d) Escherichia coli

Description : Which of the following organisms is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly ? (a) Streptococcus pyogenes (b) Meningococcus (c) Treponema pallidum (d) Escherichia coli

Last Answer : Ans: D

Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas (a) They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology (b) They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved (c) They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea (d) They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Description : Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas (a) They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology (b) They should be ... therapy of diarrhoea (d) They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Last Answer : Ans: B

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade

Description : The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs does not require supplementation of dosage following hemodialysis? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Ganciclovir (d) Tobramycin (e) Vancomycin

Description : Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs does not require supplementation of dosage following hemodialysis? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Ganciclovir (d) Tobramycin (e) Vancomycin

Last Answer : Ans: E

Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle (b) Derived from the bark of yew trees (c) Myelosuppression is dose-limiting (d) Peripheral neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

Description : Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the ... neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

Last Answer : Ans: E

In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline

Description : In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline

Last Answer : Ans: D

This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in penicillinallergic patients. Its activity against gramnegative rods is enhanced if it is given in combination with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin

Description : This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in ... with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin

Last Answer : Ans: D

2 Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations: A. Erythromycin B. Tetracycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Ampicillin

Description : 2 Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations: A. Erythromycin B. Tetracycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Ampicillin

Last Answer : A. Erythromycin Although erythromycin is primarily bacteriostatic, it is bactericidal at high concentrations for some Gram-positive species, such as group A streptococci and pneumococci

A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best choice for this patient? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin

Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning antimicrobial classes? a. Penicillins and cephalosporins share the compound structure of a b-lactam ring which binds to bacterial division plate proteins b. Tetracyclines and macrolides such as erythromycin inhibit bacterial ribosomal activity and therefore protein synthesis c. Aminoglycosides act in a similar fashion to tetracyclines and therefore are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Description : Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following ... are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Penicillins, cephalosporins, and monobactams possess a b-lactam ring of some type and act to bind bacterial division plate proteins, thus inhibiting cell wall ... act in different mechanisms to inhibit protein synthesis, therefore two agents in combination act synergistically

Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is (a) Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes (b) Destroyed by gastric acid (c) Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values (d) Insoluble in water

Description : Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is (a) Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes (b) Destroyed by gastric acid (c) Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values (d) Insoluble in water

Last Answer : Ans: C

Cefotaxime has the following properties except (a) It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria (b) It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa (c) It produces an active metabolite (d) It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except (a) It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria (b) It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa (c) It produces an active metabolite (d) It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Last Answer : Ans: B

The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its (a) Narrow spectrum of activity (b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction (c) Short duration of action (d) Neurotoxicity

Description : The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its (a) Narrow spectrum of activity (b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction (c) Short duration of action (d) Neurotoxicity

Last Answer : Ans: B

Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli

Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli

Last Answer : Ans: A

Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s) (a) Staphylococci (b) Streptococci (c) Gonococci (d) All of the above

Description : Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s) (a) Staphylococci (b) Streptococci (c) Gonococci (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Last Answer : Ans: B

The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin

Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: B

An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin

Description : An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug (a) Ampicillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low (b) It is inactivated by the gut microflora (c) It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Last Answer : Ans: A

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : Ans: C

Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin

Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin

Last Answer : Ans: C

A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline

Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline

Last Answer : Ans: A

Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics (a) Induce mutation in the bacteria (b) Promote conjugation among bacteria (c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially (d) All of the above

Description : Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics (a) Induce mutation in the bacteria (b) Promote conjugation among bacteria (c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

The plasma half life of pencillin-G is longer in the new born because their (a) Plasma protein level is low (b) Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature (c) Glomerular filtration rate is low (d) Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Description : The plasma half life of pencillin-G is longer in the new born because their (a) Plasma protein level is low (b) Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature (c) Glomerular filtration rate is low (d) Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Last Answer : Ans: D

The drug of choice for scarlet fever is (a) Tetracycline (b) Sulfonamides (c) Penicillin (d) Chloromycetin (e) Novobiocin

Description : The drug of choice for scarlet fever is (a) Tetracycline (b) Sulfonamides (c) Penicillin (d) Chloromycetin (e) Novobiocin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline

Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline

Last Answer : Ans: D

The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of esterases that hydrolyze the lactone ring (c) Increased activity of efflux mechanisms (d) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane

Description : The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of ... ) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use

Description : Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) It is a fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis

Description : Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) ... fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis

Last Answer : Ans: E

Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Description : Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if ... (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Last Answer : Ans: A

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above

Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s) (a) It is effective in nearly all cases (b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms (c) Development of carrier state is less likely (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Beta – lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be effective against all strains of each of the above organisms? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin

Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin? (a) Amikacin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Gentamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Spectinomycin

Description : Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin? (a) Amikacin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Gentamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Spectinomycin

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin

Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin

Last Answer : Ans: D

In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin

Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin

Last Answer : Ans: D

Antimicrobial drug combinations are aimed at achieving the following except: A. Faster and more complete elimination of the infecting organism B. Treat infection when nature and sensitivity of the infecting organism is not definite C. Prevent emergence of resistant strains D. Prevent superinfection

Description : Antimicrobial drug combinations are aimed at achieving the following except: A. Faster and more complete elimination of the infecting organism B. Treat infection when nature and sensitivity of the infecting organism is not definite C. Prevent emergence of resistant strains D. Prevent superinfection

Last Answer : D. Prevent superinfection

A fixed dose combination preparation meant for internal use must not contain the following class of drug: A. Thiazide diuretic B. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobial C. Corticosteroid D. H2 blocker

Description : A fixed dose combination preparation meant for internal use must not contain the following class of drug: A. Thiazide diuretic B. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobial C. Corticosteroid D. H2 blocker

Last Answer : C. Corticosteroid

Drugs acting through receptors exhibit the following features except: A. Structural specificity B. High potency C. Competitive antagonism D. Dependence of action on lipophilicity

Description : Drugs acting through receptors exhibit the following features except: A. Structural specificity B. High potency C. Competitive antagonism D. Dependence of action on lipophilicity

Last Answer : D. Dependence of action on lipophilicity

Drugs acting through receptors exhibit the following features except: A. Structural specificity B. High potency C. Competitive antagonism D. Dependence of action on lipophilicity

Description : Drugs acting through receptors exhibit the following features except: A. Structural specificity B. High potency C. Competitive antagonism D. Dependence of action on lipophilicity

Last Answer : D. Dependence of action on lipophilicity

What is break point concentration of an antibiotic: A. Concentration at which the antibiotic lyses the bacteria B. Concentration of the antibiotic which demarkates between sensitive and resistant bacteria C. Concentration of the antibiotic which overcomes bacterial resistance D. Concentration at which a bacteriostatic antibiotic becomes bactericida

Description : What is break point concentration of an antibiotic: A. Concentration at which the antibiotic lyses the bacteria B. Concentration of the antibiotic which demarkates between sensitive ... which overcomes bacterial resistance D. Concentration at which a bacteriostatic antibiotic becomes bactericida

Last Answer : . Concentration of the antibiotic which demarkates between sensitive and resistant bacteria