Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease: A. Granuloma inguinale B. Chancroid C. Syphilis D. Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin

]Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the
following disease:
A. Granuloma inguinale
B. Chancroid
C. Syphilis
D. Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Granuloma inguinale
by

Related questions

Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease. (a) Granuloma linguinale (b) Chancroid (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin

Description : Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease. (a) Granuloma linguinale (b) Chancroid (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin

Last Answer : Ans: A

Besides chlamydia urethritis, what other STD is associated with another Serotype of Chlamydia trachomatis? a. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) b. Genital warts c. Granuloma inguinale d. Chancroid

Description : Besides chlamydia urethritis, what other STD is associated with another Serotype of Chlamydia trachomatis? a. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) b. Genital warts c. Granuloma inguinale d. Chancroid

Last Answer : a. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

Indicate the disease in which penicillin G continues to be used as first line treatment in all cases (unless contraindicated), because the causative organism has not developed resistance so far: A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis C. Staphylococcal abscess D. Haemophillus influenzae meningiti

Description : Indicate the disease in which penicillin G continues to be used as first line treatment in all cases (unless contraindicated), because the causative organism has not developed resistance so far: A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis C. Staphylococcal abscess D. Haemophillus influenzae meningiti

Last Answer : B. Syphilis

Which of the following STIs start with a chancre, then a rash and if untreated results in gummas and death many years later? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Syphilis d. Granuloma inguinale

Description : Which of the following STIs start with a chancre, then a rash and if untreated results in gummas and death many years later? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Syphilis d. Granuloma inguinale

Last Answer : c. Syphilis

A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Description : A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

Which one of the following does correctly match a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen? (a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum (b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica (c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis (d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis

Description : Which one of the following does correctly match a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen? (a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum (b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica (c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis (d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis

Last Answer : a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum

Which one of the following does correctly match a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen? (a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum (b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica (c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis (d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis

Description : Which one of the following does correctly match a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen? (a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum (b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica (c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis (d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis

Last Answer : a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum

The preparation of penicillin preferred for treatment of syphilis is: A. Sodium penicillin G B. Benzathine penicillin G C. Penicillin V D. Ampicillin

Description : The preparation of penicillin preferred for treatment of syphilis is: A. Sodium penicillin G B. Benzathine penicillin G C. Penicillin V D. Ampicillin

Last Answer : B. Benzathine penicillin G

Though penicillin G kills the causative organism, it is only of adjuvant value to other measures in: A. Diphtheria B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Syphilis D. Anthrax

Description : Though penicillin G kills the causative organism, it is only of adjuvant value to other measures in: A. Diphtheria B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Syphilis D. Anthrax

Last Answer : A. Diphtheria

Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first choice antibiotic for any specific infection C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Description : Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first ... of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Last Answer : C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera

Salpingitis is associated with_______ and can lead to___________ a. Syphilis; Gumma Formation b. Gonorrhea; Sterility c. Chlamydia; Ophthalmia d. Chancroid; Soft Chancre

Description : Salpingitis is associated with_______ and can lead to___________ a. Syphilis; Gumma Formation b. Gonorrhea; Sterility c. Chlamydia; Ophthalmia d. Chancroid; Soft Chancre

Last Answer : b. Gonorrhea; Sterility

Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

Which is showing accurate pairing? (a) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum (b) AIDS - Bacillus conjugalis (c) Gonorrhoea - Leishmania donovani (d) Typhoid - Mycobacterium leprae

Description : Which is showing accurate pairing? (a) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum (b) AIDS - Bacillus conjugalis (c) Gonorrhoea - Leishmania donovani (d) Typhoid - Mycobacterium leprae

Last Answer : (a) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum

Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (column I) with their causative agent (column II) and select the correct option. Column I Column II A. Gonorrhoea (i) HIV B. Syphilis (ii) Neisseria C. Genital warts (iii) Treponema D. AIDS (iv) Human papilloma virus A B C D (a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Description : Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (column I) with their causative agent (column II) and select the correct option. Column I Column II A. Gonorrhoea (i) HIV B. Syphilis (ii) Neisseria C. Genital warts (iii) Treponema D. ... iii) (i) (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Last Answer : (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases. (a) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (b) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes (c) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria (d) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

Description : Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases. (a) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (b) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes (c) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria (d) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

Last Answer : (a) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

Radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice for the following category of thyrotoxic patients: A. Children B. Young adults with recent oneset of Grave’s disease C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease D. Pregnant women

Description : Radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice for the following category of thyrotoxic patients: A. Children B. Young adults with recent oneset of Grave’s disease C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease

Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to β-lactam antibiotics because: A. They produce a β-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs B. They elaborate an amidase which destroys methicillin and related drugs C. They have acquired penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for β-lactam antibiotics D. They are less permeable to β-lactam antibiotics

Description : Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to β-lactam antibiotics because: A. They produce a β-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs B. They elaborate an amidase which destroys ... low affinity for β-lactam antibiotics D. They are less permeable to β-lactam antibiotics

Last Answer : C. They have acquired penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for β-lactam antibioti

Drugs producing allergic reactions generally act as: A. Complete antigens B. Haptenes C. Antibodies D. Mediators

Description : Drugs producing allergic reactions generally act as: A. Complete antigens B. Haptenes C. Antibodies D. Mediators

Last Answer : B. Haptenes

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : Ans: C

Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection: A. Typhoid B. Shigella enteritis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Gonorrhoea

Description : Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection: A. Typhoid B. Shigella enteritis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Gonorrhoea

Last Answer : B. Shigella enteritis

A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol (b) Penicillin G, chlormphenicol, tetracycline, vancomycin (c) Imipenem, tetracycline, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: A

A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best choice for this patient? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin

Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Paracetamol has the following advantage(s) over NSAIDs: A. It is the first choice analgesic for majority of osteoarthritis patients B. It can be given safely to all age groups from infants to elderly C. It is not contraindicated in pregnant or breast feeding women D. All of the above

Description : Paracetamol has the following advantage(s) over NSAIDs: A. It is the first choice analgesic for majority of osteoarthritis patients B. It can be given safely to all age groups from infants to elderly C. It is not contraindicated in pregnant or breast feeding women D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Cross resistance among different members of the following class of antimicrobials is absent / incomplete or unidirectional: A. Aminoglycosides B. Macrolides C. Tetracyclines D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Cross resistance among different members of the following class of antimicrobials is absent / incomplete or unidirectional: A. Aminoglycosides B. Macrolides C. Tetracyclines D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : A. Aminoglycosides

Select the class of antibiotics which act by interfering with bacterial protein synthesis, but are bactericidal: A. Tetracyclines B. Aminoglycosides C. Macrolides D. Lincosamides

Description : Select the class of antibiotics which act by interfering with bacterial protein synthesis, but are bactericidal: A. Tetracyclines B. Aminoglycosides C. Macrolides D. Lincosamides

Last Answer : B. Aminoglycosides

Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against: A. Bateroides fragilis B. Treponema pallidum C. Streptococci D. Staphylococci

Description : Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against: A. Bateroides fragilis B. Treponema pallidum C. Streptococci D. Staphylococci

Last Answer : a

Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above

Description : Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Yersinia pestis

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora C. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low

Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out tetracyclines C. Protein synthesizing apparatus of host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out ... host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Drug destroying type of bacterial resistance is important for the following antibiotics except: A. Cephalosporins B. Tetracyclines C. Chloramphenicol D. Aminoglycosides

Description : Drug destroying type of bacterial resistance is important for the following antibiotics except: A. Cephalosporins B. Tetracyclines C. Chloramphenicol D. Aminoglycosides

Last Answer : B. Tetracyclines

CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 41.1 Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering: A. Antacids B. Tetracyclines C. Phosphates D. Ascorbic acid

Description : CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 41.1 Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering: A. Antacids B. Tetracyclines C. Phosphates D. Ascorbic acid

Last Answer : D. Ascorbic acid

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : A. Isoniazid

Indications for the use of antiplatelet drugs include the following except: A. Secondary prophylaxis of myocardial infarction B. Unstable angina pectoris C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Stroke prevention in patients with transient ischaemic attacks

Description : Indications for the use of antiplatelet drugs include the following except: A. Secondary prophylaxis of myocardial infarction B. Unstable angina pectoris C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Stroke prevention in patients with transient ischaemic attacks

Last Answer : C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

The distinctive action of chlorpromazine like drugs not possessed by any other class of drugs is: A. Relief of anxiety without producing sedation B. Suppression of agressive behaviour C. Mood elevation in depressed patients D. Correction of distortions of thoug

Description : The distinctive action of chlorpromazine like drugs not possessed by any other class of drugs is: A. Relief of anxiety without producing sedation B. Suppression of agressive behaviour C. Mood elevation in depressed patients D. Correction of distortions of thoug

Last Answer : D. Correction of distortions of thought and perception occurring in psy

Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. They are used when diuretics alone fail C. They are a substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Description : Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. ... substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Last Answer : D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

A combination of two or more antiepileptic drugs is used: A. Routinely in all types of epilepsy B. In all cases of complex partial seizures C. In all cases of secondarily generalized seizures D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Description : A combination of two or more antiepileptic drugs is used: A. Routinely in all types of epilepsy B. In all cases of complex partial seizures C. In all cases of secondarily generalized seizures D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Last Answer : D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved C. They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Description : 4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should ... antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved

Spectinomycin is an aminoglycoside-like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of (a) Gram-negative bacillary septicemia (b) Tuberculosis (c) Penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections (d) Syphilis (e) Gram-negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms

Description : Spectinomycin is an aminoglycoside-like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of (a) Gram-negative bacillary septicemia (b) Tuberculosis (c) Penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections (d) Syphilis (e) Gram-negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms

Last Answer : Ans: C

Ehrlich and Hata discovered that was used to treat a. Salvarsan; syphilis b. penicillin; surgical wounds c. Salvarsan; malaria. d. Prontosil; malaria

Description : Ehrlich and Hata discovered that was used to treat a. Salvarsan; syphilis b. penicillin; surgical wounds c. Salvarsan; malaria. d. Prontosil; malaria

Last Answer : a. Salvarsan; syphilis

All the following are drugs or drug classes blocking cell wall synthesis except: a. Cephalosporins. b. Carbapenems. c. Monobactams. d. Tetracyclines.

Description : All the following are drugs or drug classes blocking cell wall synthesis except: a. Cephalosporins. b. Carbapenems. c. Monobactams. d. Tetracyclines.

Last Answer : a. Cephalosporins.

Stevens Johnson sjmdrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs : (A) Sulphonamides (B) Macrolides (C) Penicillins (D) Tetracyclines

Description : Stevens Johnson sjmdrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs : (A) Sulphonamides (B) Macrolides (C) Penicillins (D) Tetracyclines

Last Answer : (A) Sulphonamides

Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate

Choose the condition which is mostly treated with a combination of antimicrobials: A. Lobar pneumonia B. Typhoid C. Peritonitis D. Syphilis

Description : Choose the condition which is mostly treated with a combination of antimicrobials: A. Lobar pneumonia B. Typhoid C. Peritonitis D. Syphilis

Last Answer : C. Peritonitis