Description : ]Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease: A. Granuloma inguinale B. Chancroid C. Syphilis D. Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin
Last Answer : A. Granuloma inguinale
Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Spectinomycin is an aminoglycoside-like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of (a) Gram-negative bacillary septicemia (b) Tuberculosis (c) Penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections (d) Syphilis (e) Gram-negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms
Description : Indicate the disease in which penicillin G continues to be used as first line treatment in all cases (unless contraindicated), because the causative organism has not developed resistance so far: A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis C. Staphylococcal abscess D. Haemophillus influenzae meningiti
Last Answer : B. Syphilis
Description : The drug of choice for scarlet fever is (a) Tetracycline (b) Sulfonamides (c) Penicillin (d) Chloromycetin (e) Novobiocin
Description : Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to ß-lactam antibiotics because (a) They produce a ß-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs (b) They elaborate an amidase which destroys ... low affinity for ß-lactam antibiotics (d) They are less permeable to ß-lactam antibiotics
Description : Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection (a) Typhoid (b) Shigella enteritis (c) Subacute bacterial endocarditis (d) Gonorrhoea
Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Spectinomycin (d) Doxycycline
Description : Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against (a) Bateroides fragilis (b) Treponema pallidum (c) Streptococci (d) Staphylococci
Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well
Description : Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas (a) They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology (b) They should be ... therapy of diarrhoea (d) They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea
Description : Besides chlamydia urethritis, what other STD is associated with another Serotype of Chlamydia trachomatis? a. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) b. Genital warts c. Granuloma inguinale d. Chancroid
Last Answer : a. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease ? (a) Chlortetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Cephalexin (d) Ethambutol
Description : Which one of the following does correctly match a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen? (a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum (b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica (c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis (d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis
Last Answer : a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
Description : A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy? (a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h (b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h (c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h (d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h (e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h
Description : Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin ? (a) Procaine penicillin (b) Ampicillin (c) Cloxacillin (d) Carbenicillin
Description : The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its (a) Narrow spectrum of activity (b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction (c) Short duration of action (d) Neurotoxicity
Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then (a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ( ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely (d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is (a) Benzathine penicillin (b) Sodium penicillin (c) Potassium penicillin (d) Procaine penicillin
Description : Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because (a) They produce large quantities of penicillinase (b) They do not utilize D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is ... lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multiplayer cell wall of gram-negative bacteria (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin
Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin
Description : A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. ... /clavulanate (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Vancomycin
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : A 36-year-old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted to hospital with malaise, chills and high fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of gramnegative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is ... (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin (d) Imipenem plus cilastatin (e) Ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid
Description : An advantge of betamethasone acetate over betamethasone sodium phosphate is (a) Fewer allergic reactions (b) Prompter action (c) More sustained action (d) Greater solubility (e) There is no advantage
Description : Salpingitis is associated with_______ and can lead to___________ a. Syphilis; Gumma Formation b. Gonorrhea; Sterility c. Chlamydia; Ophthalmia d. Chancroid; Soft Chancre
Last Answer : b. Gonorrhea; Sterility
Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin
Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level
Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened
Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin
Description : Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the ... neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur
Description : This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in ... with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin
Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin
Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Cotrimoxaxole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Ampicillin
Description : Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use
Description : Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) ... fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis
Description : Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellular(MAI)? (a) Vancomycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Erythromycin base (d) Troleandomycin (e) Erythromycin estolate
Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate
Description : Sulfamethoxypyridazine and other related long acting sulfonamides have now gone into disuse because (a) They have produced serious cutaneous reactions (b) They have produced high incidence of crystalluria (c) They interact with many drugs (d) They do not penetrate blood-brain barrier
Description : An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)
Description : A 19-year-old woman with recurrent sinusitis has been treated with different antibiotics on several occasions. During the course of one such treatment she developed a severe diarrhea and was hospitalized. ... difficile? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Clindamycin (d) Metonidazole (e) Tetracycline
Description : The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade
Description : Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs does not require supplementation of dosage following hemodialysis? (a) Ampicillin (b) Cefazolin (c) Ganciclovir (d) Tobramycin (e) Vancomycin
Description : Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin? (a) Amikacin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Gentamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Spectinomycin
Description : Which is showing accurate pairing? (a) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum (b) AIDS - Bacillus conjugalis (c) Gonorrhoea - Leishmania donovani (d) Typhoid - Mycobacterium leprae
Last Answer : (a) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum
Description : Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (column I) with their causative agent (column II) and select the correct option. Column I Column II A. Gonorrhoea (i) HIV B. Syphilis (ii) Neisseria C. Genital warts (iii) Treponema D. ... iii) (i) (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Last Answer : (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Description : Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases. (a) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (b) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes (c) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria (d) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
Last Answer : (a) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes