Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora C. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a
lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because:
A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the
colonic contents is low
B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora
C. It is not active against the microbes of the
normal gut flora
D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the
colonic contents is low
by

Related questions

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low (b) It is inactivated by the gut microflora (c) It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Last Answer : Ans: A

Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic: A. Demeclocycline B. Oxytetracycline C. Minocycline D. Doxycycline

Description : Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic: A. Demeclocycline B. Oxytetracycline C. Minocycline D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : C. Minocycline

The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is exerted by: A. Inhibitory action of the unabsorbed drug on the abnormal colonic flora B. Breakdown of the drug in colon to release 5-aminosalicylic acid which suppresses inflammation locally C. Release of sulfapyridine having antibacterial property D. Systemic immunomodulatory action of the drug

Description : The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is exerted by: A. Inhibitory action of the unabsorbed drug on the abnormal colonic flora B. Breakdown of the drug in ... locally C. Release of sulfapyridine having antibacterial property D. Systemic immunomodulatory action of the drug

Last Answer : B. Breakdown of the drug in colon to release 5-aminosalicylic acid which suppresses inflammation locally

The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases tone and segmenting activity of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action

Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic (a) Demeclocycline (b) Methacycline (c) Minocycline (d) Doxycycline

Description : Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic (a) Demeclocycline (b) Methacycline (c) Minocycline (d) Doxycycline

Last Answer : Ans: C

Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone

Description : Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone

Last Answer : D. Furazolidone

Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first choice antibiotic for any specific infection C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Description : Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first ... of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Last Answer : C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera

Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical C. It is rapidly inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical

Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic, it is practically not used because: A. It is more ototoxic B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow dose range D. All of the above

Description : Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic, it is practically not used because: A. It is more ototoxic B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow dose range D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The tetracycline with highest antileprotic activity is: A. Minocycline B. Doxycycline C. Demeclocycline D. Oxytetracycline

Description : The tetracycline with highest antileprotic activity is: A. Minocycline B. Doxycycline C. Demeclocycline D. Oxytetracycline

Last Answer : A. Minocycline

he most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is: A. Tetracycline B. Demeclocycline C. Oxytetracycline D. Doxycycline

Description : he most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is: A. Tetracycline B. Demeclocycline C. Oxytetracycline D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : D. Doxycycline

The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity: A. Minocycline B. Demeclocycline C. Doxycycline D. Tetracycline

Description : The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity: A. Minocycline B. Demeclocycline C. Doxycycline D. Tetracycline

Last Answer : D. Tetracycline

Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of TPN on the GI tract? a. Patients receiving TPN have an accentuated systemic response to endotoxin challenge compared to enterally fed volunteers b. TPN can result in disruption of intestinal microflora c. In experimental models, bacterial translocation from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Description : Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the ... from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d A number of studies have examined the effects of TPN on intestinal function and immunity. Although most of these studies have been done in animal models, ... the release of bacteria and/or cytokines leading to pronounced systemic responses and possibly multiple organ failure

Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out tetracyclines C. Protein synthesizing apparatus of host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out ... host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis

Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against: A. Bateroides fragilis B. Treponema pallidum C. Streptococci D. Staphylococci

Description : Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against: A. Bateroides fragilis B. Treponema pallidum C. Streptococci D. Staphylococci

Last Answer : a

Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above

Description : Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Yersinia pestis

Antimicrobial drug combinations are aimed at achieving the following except: A. Faster and more complete elimination of the infecting organism B. Treat infection when nature and sensitivity of the infecting organism is not definite C. Prevent emergence of resistant strains D. Prevent superinfection

Description : Antimicrobial drug combinations are aimed at achieving the following except: A. Faster and more complete elimination of the infecting organism B. Treat infection when nature and sensitivity of the infecting organism is not definite C. Prevent emergence of resistant strains D. Prevent superinfection

Last Answer : D. Prevent superinfection

Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It needs pretreatment fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Description : Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It ... fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Last Answer : A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects

Select the antibiotic which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by interfering with translocation of elongating peptide chain from acceptor site back to the peptidyl site of the ribosome so that ribosome does not move along the mRNA and the peptide chain is prematurely terminated: A. Chloramphenicol B. Erythromycin C. Tetracycline D. Streptomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by interfering with translocation of elongating peptide chain from acceptor site back to the peptidyl site of the ribosome so that ... chain is prematurely terminated: A. Chloramphenicol B. Erythromycin C. Tetracycline D. Streptomycin

Last Answer : B. Erythromycin

Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects

Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic

'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues

Description : 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues

Last Answer : B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ammonia in the gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver

Description : Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ... gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver

Last Answer : B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Description : Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Which of the following is a disease modifying antirheumatic drug whose active metabolite inhibits the enzyme dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase: A. Leflunomide B. Nimesulide C. Sulfasalazine D. Colchicine

Description : Which of the following is a disease modifying antirheumatic drug whose active metabolite inhibits the enzyme dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase: A. Leflunomide B. Nimesulide C. Sulfasalazine D. Colchicine

Last Answer : A. Leflunomide

Neomycin is widely used as a topical antibiotic because: A. It is active against a wide range of bacteria causing superfecial infections B. It rarely causes contact sensitization C. It is poorly absorbed from the topical sites of application D. All of the above are correct

Description : Neomycin is widely used as a topical antibiotic because: A. It is active against a wide range of bacteria causing superfecial infections B. It rarely causes contact sensitization C. It is poorly absorbed from the topical sites of application D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

The following is/are true of mesalazine: A. It exerts mainly local antiinflammatory action in the lower gut B. It is a broad spectrum antidiarrhoeal drug C. It can be administered as a retention enema D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : The following is/are true of mesalazine: A. It exerts mainly local antiinflammatory action in the lower gut B. It is a broad spectrum antidiarrhoeal drug C. It can be administered as a retention enema D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C

The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood pressure and sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole

Description : A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal ... drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole

Last Answer : C. Loperamide

yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels

Which of the following statement(s) concerning the gut microflora is/are correct? a. Gut microflora evolves constantly throughout development b. The gut microflora can contribute to the physical and chemical barriers at the mucus membrane level c. Most of the microorganisms found in the oropharynx eventually pass into the intestine d. In the colon, anaerobic organisms outnumber aerobic organisms in a ratio in excess of 100:1

Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning the gut microflora is/are correct? a. Gut microflora evolves constantly throughout development b. The gut microflora can contribute to the physical and ... the colon, anaerobic organisms outnumber aerobic organisms in a ratio in excess of 100:1

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The composition of the gut microflora is established in neonates after ingestion of microbes that are acquired during contamination from the birth canal and during initial feeding, and ... small number of aerobes are present, these microbes being outnumbered 100-300 to 1 by anaerobes

Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline

Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Erythromycin (d) Rifampin (e) Tetracycline

Last Answer : Ans: D

Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by: A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen B. Altering gut motility C. Altering gut flora D. Damaging gut mucosa

Description : Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by: A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen B. Altering gut motility C. Altering gut flora D. Damaging gut mucosa

Last Answer : B. Altering gut motility

Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by: A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen B. Altering gut motility C. Altering gut flora D. Damaging gut mucosa

Description : Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by: A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen B. Altering gut motility C. Altering gut flora D. Damaging gut mucosa

Last Answer : B. Altering gut motility

Drug destroying type of bacterial resistance is important for the following antibiotics except: A. Cephalosporins B. Tetracyclines C. Chloramphenicol D. Aminoglycosides

Description : Drug destroying type of bacterial resistance is important for the following antibiotics except: A. Cephalosporins B. Tetracyclines C. Chloramphenicol D. Aminoglycosides

Last Answer : B. Tetracyclines

An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the drug that you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

Description : An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the ... you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine

Last Answer : B. Doxycycline

The drug of choice for penicillinase producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae urethritis is: A. Amoxicillin B. Erythromycin C. Ceftriaxone D. Doxycycline

Description : The drug of choice for penicillinase producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae urethritis is: A. Amoxicillin B. Erythromycin C. Ceftriaxone D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : C. Ceftriaxone

The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin

Description : The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin

Last Answer : A. Doxycycline

A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

Select the drug(s) which afford(s) relief in gastroesophageal reflux by increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone and promoting gastric emptying, but without affecting acidity of gastric contents: A. Sodium alginate B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Description : Select the drug(s) which afford(s) relief in gastroesophageal reflux by increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone and promoting gastric emptying, but without affecting acidity of gastric contents: A. Sodium alginate B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Description : Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. It has no central action

Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Description : Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Description : Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Last Answer : B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris