Radical cure of vivax malaria should be attempted in: A. Areas where only sporadic cases occur B. Endemic areas with effective vector control measures C. Endemic areas not covered by vector control D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Radical cure of vivax malaria should be attempted
in:
A. Areas where only sporadic cases occur
B. Endemic areas with effective vector control
measures
C. Endemic areas not covered by vector control
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc
by

Related questions

Indicate the drug that can be used as an alternative to primaquine for radical cure of vivax malaria: A. Atovaquone B. Bulaquine C. Tetracycline D. Proguanil

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Last Answer : B. Bulaquine

The following drug is a radical curative in vivax malaria: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Mefloquine D. Chloroquine

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Last Answer : B. Primaquine

Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not active against P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain

Chemoprophylaxis of malaria is recommended for the following category of subjects: A. Residents of nonendemic areas B. Residents of endemic areas C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic areas D. Travellers from endemic to nonendemic areas

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Last Answer : C. Travellers from nonendemic to endemic areas

Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Description : Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

After treating intestinal amoebiasis with metronidazole, a course of diloxanide furoate is often advised to: A. Cure any subclinical hepatic involvement B. Suppress the symbiotic intestinal flora C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

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The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine

Description : The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine

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A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

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Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

The following drug is a causal prophylactic for falciparum malaria and suppressive prophylactic for vivax malaria: A. Chloroquine B. Mepacrine C. Quinine D. Proguanil

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Last Answer : D. Proguanil

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are: A. It is unstable in aqueous solution B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correct

Digoxin affords the following benefit/benefits in CHF: A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms B. Reverses the pathological changes of CHF C. Prolongs survival of CHF patients D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

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The positive inotropic action of digoxin takes several hours to develop because: A. Binding of digoxin to Na+K+ATPase is slow B. After Na+K+ATPase inhibition by digoxin, Ca2+ loading of myocardial fibres occurs progressively with each contraction C. Digoxin inhibits Na+K+ATPase through modification of gene function which takes time D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

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Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine should be used as a: A. Clinical curative in areas with chloroquine resistant malaria B. Clinical curative in areas without chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum C. Prophylactic in areas with or without chloroquine resistance D. All of the above

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Last Answer : A. Clinical curative in areas with chloroquine resistant malaria

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Last Answer : B. Erythrocytic schizontocide for both P. falciparum and P. vivax

Assertion : Plasmodium vivax is responsible for malaria. Reason : Malaria is caused by polluted water.

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Last Answer : Assertion : Plasmodium vivax is responsible for malaria. Reason : Malaria is caused by polluted water. ... If both the assertion and reason are false

Which one of the following types of malaria is pernicious malaria? (1) Vivax (2) Ralapse (3) Tertian (4) Malignant

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Which one of the following options gives the correct match of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection? Disease Causative Mode of organism infection (a) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired typhi air (b) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet pneumoniae infection (c) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With infected bancrofti water and food (d) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male vivax Anopheles mosquito

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Last Answer : (a) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired typhi air

Which one of the following types of malaria is pernicious malaria ? (1) Vivax (2) Ralapse (3) Tertian (4) Malignant

Description : Which one of the following types of malaria is pernicious malaria ? (1) Vivax (2) Ralapse (3) Tertian (4) Malignant

Last Answer : Malignant

A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

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Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has practically replaced the conventional regimens because: A. It is more efficatious B. It is less toxic C. It has yielded higher completion rates D. All of the above are correc

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Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with chloramphenicol C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

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Last Answer : D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ACE inhibitors ± digitalis/ diuretic C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy

elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Description : elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : B. Proguanil + Chloroquine

The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except: A. Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient B. Prophylaxis of endemic goiter C. As antiseptic D. As expectorant

Description : The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except: A. Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient B. Prophylaxis of endemic goiter C. As antiseptic D. As expectorant

Last Answer : C. As antiseptic

Triiodothyronine is preferred over thyroxine in the treatment of: A. Endemic goiter B. Cretinism C. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid D. Myxoedema coma

Description : Triiodothyronine is preferred over thyroxine in the treatment of: A. Endemic goiter B. Cretinism C. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid D. Myxoedema coma

Last Answer : D. Myxoedema coma

Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Description : Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Last Answer : D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical C. It is rapidly inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical

The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Description : The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Last Answer : B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale

he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above

Description : he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Description : The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it ... erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

An epileptic woman controlled by phenytoin therapy conceives. Which of the following measures is most appropriate: A. Medical termination of pregnancy B. Withdraw phenytoin therapy C. Gradually reduce phenytoin dose to the lowest effective level D. Substitute phenytoin with a combination of carbamazepine and sodium valproate

Description : An epileptic woman controlled by phenytoin therapy conceives. Which of the following measures is most appropriate: A. Medical termination of pregnancy B. Withdraw phenytoin therapy C. ... lowest effective level D. Substitute phenytoin with a combination of carbamazepine and sodium valproate

Last Answer : C. Gradually reduce phenytoin dose to the lowest effective level

Fifty cases of hepatitis A during one week in a community would most likely be described as a/ana. Outbreak. b. Pandemic. c. Endemic Disease. d. Epidemic.

Description : Fifty cases of hepatitis A during one week in a community would most likely be described as a/an a. Outbreak. b. Pandemic. c. Endemic Disease. d. Epidemic.

Last Answer : d. Epidemic.

The following drug should be used only as clinical curative but not as prophylactic in malaria: A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine B. Proguanil C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Description : The following drug should be used only as clinical curative but not as prophylactic in malaria: A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine B. Proguanil C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine

If a drug is active against the preerythrocytic stage of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Causal prophylactic C. Clinical curative D. Radical curative

Description : If a drug is active against the preerythrocytic stage of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Causal prophylactic C. Clinical curative D. Radical curative

Last Answer : B. Causal prophylactic

N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because: A. It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex B. It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of paracetamol C. It is a free radical scavenger D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

Description : N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because: A. It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex B. It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of ... scavenger D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

Last Answer : D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

Consider the following four measures (A-D) that could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacterial blight disease is common. (A) Spray with Bordeaux mixture (B) Control of the insect vector of the disease pathogen (C) Use of only disease-free seeds (D) Use of varieties resistant to the disease Which two of the above measures can control the disease? (a) (C) and (D) (b) (A) and (D) (c) (B) and (C) (d) (A) and (B)

Description : Consider the following four measures (A-D) that could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacterial blight disease is common. (A) Spray with Bordeaux mixture (B) Control of the insect vector of the disease pathogen (C) ... (D) (b) (A) and (D) (c) (B) and (C) (d) (A) and (B)

Last Answer : (b) (A) and (D)

All the following statements about endemic goiter are true except (A) It occurs in areas where soil and water have low iodine content (B) It leads to enlargement of thyroid gland (C) It results ultimately in hyperthyroidism (D) It can be prevented by consumption of iodised salt

Description : All the following statements about endemic goiter are true except (A) It occurs in areas where soil and water have low iodine content (B) It leads to enlargement of thyroid gland (C) It results ultimately in hyperthyroidism (D) It can be prevented by consumption of iodised salt

Last Answer : Answer : C

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases