Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic, it is practically not used because: A. It is more ototoxic B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow dose range D. All of the above

Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic,
it is practically not used because:
A. It is more ototoxic
B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding
C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow
dose range
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The following diuretic reduces positive free water clearance but does not affect negative free water clearance: A. Hydroflumethiazide B. Furosemide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Mannitol

Description : The following diuretic reduces positive free water clearance but does not affect negative free water clearance: A. Hydroflumethiazide B. Furosemide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Mannitol

Last Answer : A. Hydroflumethiazide

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora C. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low

When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Description : When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Last Answer : C. Therapeutic window phenomenon

A diuretic which is an aldosterone antagonist is (A) Spironolactone (B) Ethacrynic acid (C) Acetazolamide (D) Chlorothiazide

Description : A diuretic which is an aldosterone antagonist is (A) Spironolactone (B) Ethacrynic acid (C) Acetazolamide (D) Chlorothiazide

Last Answer : Answer : A

Following loop diuretic is a phynoxy acetic acid derivative (a) Furosemide (b) Bumetanide (c) Ethacrynic acid (d) All of the above

Description : Following loop diuretic is a phynoxy acetic acid derivative (a) Furosemide (b) Bumetanide (c) Ethacrynic acid (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive

Description : Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive

Last Answer : C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma

A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished and ascitis again appeared. Select the measure to reinduce diuresis: A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose to 100 mg twice daily B. Add acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

Select the diuretic which is similar in efficacy and pattern of electrolyte excretion to furosemide, but is 40 times more potent dose to dose: A. Piretanide B. Bumetanide C. Xipamide D. Metolazone

Description : Select the diuretic which is similar in efficacy and pattern of electrolyte excretion to furosemide, but is 40 times more potent dose to dose: A. Piretanide B. Bumetanide C. Xipamide D. Metolazone

Last Answer : B. Bumetanide

Choose the correct statement about theophylline: A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin B. Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers C. It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP D. Its plasma halflife is longer in children compared to that in adults

Description : Choose the correct statement about theophylline: A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin B. Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers C. It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP D. Its plasma halflife is longer in children compared to that in adults

Last Answer : A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Omeprazole exerts practically no other action except inhibition of gastric acid secretion because: A. It transforms into the active cationic forms only in the acidic pH of the gastric juice B. Its active forms have selective affinity for the H+K+ATPase located in the apical canaliculi of gastric parietal cells C. Its cationic forms are unable to diffuse out from the gastric parietal cell canaliculi D. All of the above

Description : Omeprazole exerts practically no other action except inhibition of gastric acid secretion because: A. It transforms into the active cationic forms only in the acidic pH of the gastric juice B. Its ... forms are unable to diffuse out from the gastric parietal cell canaliculi D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low (b) It is inactivated by the gut microflora (c) It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Last Answer : Ans: A

Features of atorvastatin include the following: A. Dose to dose most potent HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. Higher ceiling of LDL-cholesterol lowering action than lovastatin C. Antioxidant property D. All of the above

Description : Features of atorvastatin include the following: A. Dose to dose most potent HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. Higher ceiling of LDL-cholesterol lowering action than lovastatin C. Antioxidant property D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has practically replaced the conventional regimens because: A. It is more efficatious B. It is less toxic C. It has yielded higher completion rates D. All of the above are correc

Description : The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has practically replaced the conventional regimens because: A. It is more efficatious B. It is less toxic C. It has yielded higher completion rates D. All of the above are correc

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride

Description : At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride

Last Answer : C. Acetazolamide

Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : D. Furosemide

The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases tone and segmenting activity of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action

Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Description : Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if ... (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Last Answer : Ans: A

The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

Description : The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

Last Answer : B. Anaemia during pregnancy

Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin therapy prevents granulomatous lesions and cardiac complications of acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Description : Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin ... acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till haemodynamic compensation is restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till ... restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Last Answer : A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term

When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Description : When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Last Answer : C. Therapeutic window phenomenon

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

The daily dose of elemental iron for maximal haemopoietic response in an anaemic adult is: A. 30 mg B. 100 mg C. 200 mg D. 500 mg

Description : The daily dose of elemental iron for maximal haemopoietic response in an anaemic adult is: A. 30 mg B. 100 mg C. 200 mg D. 500 mg

Last Answer : C. 200 mg

The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Description : The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory ... these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Last Answer : A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action

Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in the following aspects except: A. They have a steeper dose response curve B. They have higher therapeutic index C. They have lower abuse liability D. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes

Description : Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in the following aspects except: A. They have a steeper dose response curve B. They have higher therapeutic index C. They have lower abuse liability D. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes

Last Answer : A. They have a steeper dose response curve

The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Description : The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Last Answer : B. It is a rectangular hyperbola

The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Description : The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Last Answer : B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic

The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Description : The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Last Answer : B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale

Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ammonia in the gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver

Description : Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ... gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver

Last Answer : B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria

Budesonide is a (a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (b) High ceiling diuretic (c) Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma (d) Contraceptive

Description : Budesonide is a (a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (b) High ceiling diuretic (c) Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma (d) Contraceptive

Last Answer : Ans: C

Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar pattern of haemodynamic action are superior to those with dissimilar pattern C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Description : Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar ... should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Last Answer : C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined

Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Description : Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

Corticosteroid therapy is practically mandatory in the following condition: A. Septic shock B. Renal transplant C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ulcerative colitis

Description : Corticosteroid therapy is practically mandatory in the following condition: A. Septic shock B. Renal transplant C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ulcerative colitis

Last Answer : B. Renal transplan

Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved C. They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Description : 4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should ... antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

A drug that is useful in glaucoma and high-altitude sickness is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Demeclocycline (d) Desmopressin (e) Ethacrynic acid

Description : A drug that is useful in glaucoma and high-altitude sickness is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Demeclocycline (d) Desmopressin (e) Ethacrynic acid

Last Answer : Ans: A

Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone

Description : Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone

Last Answer : D. Furazolidone

Clotrimazole is used for the following conditions except: A. Monilial diarrhoea B. Monilial vaginitis C. Otomycosis D. Tinea cruris

Description : Clotrimazole is used for the following conditions except: A. Monilial diarrhoea B. Monilial vaginitis C. Otomycosis D. Tinea cruris

Last Answer : A. Monilial diarrhoea

The drug of choice for monilial diarrhoea is: A. Flucytosine B. Nystatin C. Natamycin D. Ketoconazole

Description : The drug of choice for monilial diarrhoea is: A. Flucytosine B. Nystatin C. Natamycin D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : B. Nystatin

Oral vancomycin is indicated in the following condition: A. Appendicitis B. Campylobacter diarrhoea C. Bacillary dysentery D. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Description : Oral vancomycin is indicated in the following condition: A. Appendicitis B. Campylobacter diarrhoea C. Bacillary dysentery D. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Last Answer : D. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first choice antibiotic for any specific infection C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Description : Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first ... of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections

Last Answer : C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera

A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood pressure and sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole

Description : A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal ... drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole

Last Answer : C. Loperamide

The following diarrhoea is consistently benefited by antimicrobial therapy: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Cholera C. Salmonella diarrhoeas D. Traveller’s diarrhoea

Description : The following diarrhoea is consistently benefited by antimicrobial therapy: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Cholera C. Salmonella diarrhoeas D. Traveller’s diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. Cholera

Antimicrobial treatment does not alter the course of the following diarrhoeas except: A. Mild enterotoxigenic E.coli diarrhoea B. Campylobacter diarrhoea C. Coeliac disease diarrhoea D. Food poisoning diarrhoea

Description : Antimicrobial treatment does not alter the course of the following diarrhoeas except: A. Mild enterotoxigenic E.coli diarrhoea B. Campylobacter diarrhoea C. Coeliac disease diarrhoea D. Food poisoning diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. Campylobacter diarrhoea

An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol

Description : An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : C. Norfloxacin