A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering
from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks
pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be:
A. Started immediately
B. Delayed till end of first trimester
C. Delayed till end of second trimester
D. Delayed till after confinement
by

1 Answer

Answer :

. Started immediately
by

Related questions

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Description : Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Last Answer : B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome

Out of the following, which is the most ideal time for insertion of an intra uterine contraceptive device? Options: 1) Immediate post-partum i.e. within first week of delivery 2) Post-puerperal i.e. 6-8 weeks after delivery 3) Immediately after second trimester legal abortion 4) During last week of menstrual cycle

Description : Out of the following, which is the most ideal time for insertion of an intra uterine contraceptive device? Options: 1) Immediate post-partum i.e. within first week of delivery2) Post- ... after delivery 3) Immediately after second trimester legal abortion 4) During last week of menstrual cycle

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 2) Post-puerperal i.e. 6-8 weeks after delivery

28 years old woman with previous history of having baby with Down’s Syndrome is now 12 weeks pregnant. Which of the following would you suggest to her: a) Amniocentesis. b) Obstetric ultrasound. c) Chorionic villus sampling. d) Fetal blood sampling. e) Wait till eighteen weeks for detailed ultrasound and amniocentesis.

Description : 28 years old woman with previous history of having baby with Down's Syndrome is now 12 weeks pregnant. Which of the following would you suggest to her: a) Amniocentesis. b) Obstetric ... sampling. d) Fetal blood sampling. e) Wait till eighteen weeks for detailed ultrasound and amniocentesis.

Last Answer : c) Chorionic villus sampling.

Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Description : Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Last Answer : B. Reduce adult stature

The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Description : The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Last Answer : A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy

A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long

Description : A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long

Last Answer : B. 6-12 months

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Description : The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is: A. Extreme susceptibility to pain B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage C. Recurring oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

Description : A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental ... oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

Last Answer : B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response

A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following measures would you recommend: A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine B. Substitute isoniazid with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine

Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. Two years or more till disease inactivity is attained D. One year for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more

Description : Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. ... for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more

Last Answer : B. One year fixed duration for all cases

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

If the pregnancy of a woman is within the first trimester (within 12 weeks), for medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) a) opinion of one doctor is necessary b) opinions of two doctors are necessary c) opinion of a medical board with more than two doctors is necessary d) permission from the local civil court is necessary

Description : If the pregnancy of a woman is within the first trimester (within 12 weeks), for medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) a) opinion of one doctor is necessary b) opinions of two doctors ... medical board with more than two doctors is necessary d) permission from the local civil court is necessary  

Last Answer : a) opinion of one doctor is necessary

Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin

Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A 15-year-old girl was seen by her family physician because of increasing lethargy. She had a recent history of the "flu". Biochemistry tests show that she has renal impairement. serum sodium 140 mmol/L (137 - 144) serum potassium 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 4.9) serum urea 28 mol/L (2.5 - 7.5) serum creatinine 280 µmol/L (60 - 110) Her condition does not improve after several weeks on corticosteroid therapy, so a renal biopsy is performed. The biopsy demonstrates the presence of segmental sclerosis of 3 of 10 glomeruli identified in the biopsy specimen. Immunofluorescence studies and electron microscopy do not reveal evidence for immune deposits. What is the most appropriate advice to give regarding her condition? 1) She has an underlying malignancy 2) She may require a renal transplant in 10 years

Description : A 15-year-old girl was seen by her family physician because of increasing lethargy. She had a recent history of the "flu". Biochemistry tests show that she has renal impairement. ... will likely develop a restrictive lung disease 5) She will probably improve with additional corticosteroid therapy

Last Answer : Answers-2 The findings point to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS), which leads to chronic renal failure in half of cases. The lack of resolution with corticosteroid therapy and the progression to chronic renal failure is what sets FSGS apart from minimal change disease.

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month

A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and do not give any anticonvulsant drug B. Continuous phenobarbitone prophylaxis till the age of 10 years C. Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Description : Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Last Answer : D. Abnormal movements

Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy C. In patients not responding to carbimazole D. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine

Description : Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy C. In patients not responding to carbimazole D. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine

Last Answer : A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops

Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment of migraine attacks C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Description : Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment ... resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases

A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : C. Atenolol

Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. Produces more rapid sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

The most vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformations due to drugs is: A. 18-55 days of gestation B. 56-84 days of gestation C. Second trimester D. 36 weeks onwards

Description : The most vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformations due to drugs is: A. 18-55 days of gestation B. 56-84 days of gestation C. Second trimester D. 36 weeks onwards

Last Answer : A. 18-55 days of gestation

The most vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformations due to drugs is: A. 18-55 days of gestation B. 56-84 days of gestation C. Second trimester D. 36 weeks onwards

Description : The most vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformations due to drugs is: A. 18-55 days of gestation B. 56-84 days of gestation C. Second trimester D. 36 weeks onwards

Last Answer : A. 18-55 days of gestation

Want to know how to get rid of piles ? I have been suffering from piles for the last 2 years. Recently I went to a homeopathic doctor and he assured me that the problem will be reduced in 20-25 days and will get better in 3-4 months with some food medicine and a liquid medicine to apply on the piles. But I haven't noticed any improvement in the medicine for 15 days now, but more frequent itching in the rectum and putting that liquid medicine in the piles, the burning sensation starts immediately and after a while it subsides ... Now I am very nervous and scared about this medicine Turn to cancer !!! Could it really be that ... so what can I do , please help me with some advice ...

Description : Want to know how to get rid of piles ? I have been suffering from piles for the last 2 years. Recently I went to a homeopathic doctor and he assured me that the problem will be reduced in 20-25 days and will ... !!! Could it really be that ... so what can I do , please help me with some advice ...

Last Answer : If you take homeopathic medicine then the homeopathic doctor has rightly said that it will take 3/4 months to get better but you need to consult a piles expert 2 years ago. You can stay. Therefore, a piles ... by the piles doctor. So I said take the advice of a piles expert to get a quick solution.

For the treatment of female infertility, clomiphene citrate is used in the following manner: A. Daily from 5th to 10th day of menstrual cycle B. On alternate days over the last two weeks of menstrual cycle C. Cyclically for 3 weeks with one week gap D. Continuously till conception occurs

Description : For the treatment of female infertility, clomiphene citrate is used in the following manner: A. Daily from 5th to 10th day of menstrual cycle B. On alternate days over the last two weeks of menstrual cycle C. Cyclically for 3 weeks with one week gap D. Continuously till conception occurs

Last Answer : A. Daily from 5th to 10th day of menstrual cycle

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Description : Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Last Answer : B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis

Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right middle lobectomy for bronchogenic cancer in a 65-year-old smoker. C. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty for chronic duodenal ulcer disease in a 50-year-old who had chest film findings of old, healed tuberculosis. D. Right hemicolectomy in an obese 60-year-old smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.

Description : Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right ... smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.

Last Answer : Answer: BDCAE DISCUSSION: If one considers the constellation of risk factors for pulmonary complications that is provided in tabular form in the accompanying chapter, one should ... is associated with relatively little postoperative pain, and provides free and unrestricted respiratory function

For healing duodenal ulcer the usual duration of H2 blocker therapy is: A. 4 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 12 weeks

Description : For healing duodenal ulcer the usual duration of H2 blocker therapy is: A. 4 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 12 weeks

Last Answer : C. 8 weeks

P started a business in 1990 by investing Rs.25,000. She invested Rs. 10,000 as additional amount in 1991 and her friend Q joined her with an amount of Rs.35,000. P invested another Rs. 10,000 in 1992 and R joined them with Rs. 35,000. At the end of these 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs. 150,000. Find Q's share? a) Rs.50,000 b) Rs.65,000 c) Rs.75,000 d) Rs.15,000

Description : P started a business in 1990 by investing Rs.25,000. She invested Rs. 10,000 as additional amount in 1991 and her friend Q joined her with an amount of Rs.35,000. P invested another Rs. 10,000 in 1992 and R joined them ... ,000. Find Q's share? a) Rs.50,000 b) Rs.65,000 c) Rs.75,000 d) Rs.15,000

Last Answer : Answer: A) P invested Rs.25,000 for 12 months, Rs.(25000 + 10000) for 12 months, , Rs.(25000 + 10000 + 10000) for 12 months. i.e., P invested Rs.25,000 for 12 months, Rs.35000 for 12 months Rs.45000 for 12 months. Q ... Q's share = Rs.(1,50,000 x 2 /(3+2+1)) = Rs.(1,50,000 x 2/6) = Rs.50,000

A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while blood picture and haemoglobin level were improved. What could be the most likely explanation: A. Folic acid was not adequately absorbed resulting in partial response B. Folate therapy has precipitated vitamin B12 deficiency in the neural tissue C. Folate therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Description : A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while ... therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Last Answer : D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Description : A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Last Answer : C. Three weeks

A 28 years old woman has 14 weeks size irregular uterus. She does not complain of abdominal pain or menorrhagia. Her pap smear is normal. The best next step in her management would be: a) Continued observation. b) Endometrial biopsy. c) Hysterectomy. d) Pelvic ultrasonography. e) Laparoscopy.

Description : A 28 years old woman has 14 weeks size irregular uterus. She does not complain of abdominal pain or menorrhagia. Her pap smear is normal. The best next step in her management would be: a) Continued observation. b) Endometrial biopsy. c) Hysterectomy. d) Pelvic ultrasonography. e) Laparoscopy.

Last Answer : continued observation is required in such a case as the patient is stable

The primary reason for not using ethionamide as a first line antitubercular drug is: A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis B. It is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal C. Ethionamide resistance has become widespread D. It has to be given by injection

Description : The primary reason for not using ethionamide as a first line antitubercular drug is: A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis B. It is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal C. Ethionamide resistance has become widespread D. It has to be given by injection

Last Answer : A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis

Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Last Answer : C. Ethambutol

First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : D. Ethambutol

As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap

Description : As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap

Last Answer : C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it

Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs

Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by enlargement of thyroid gland C. Its long term use in Grave's disease leads to ‘thyroid escape’ D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Description : Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by ... leads to thyroid escape' D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Last Answer : A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therap

Risk of neural tube defect in the offspring can be minimised in pregnant women receiving antiepileptic drugs by supplemental therapy with: A. Folic acid B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin E D. Pyridoxine

Description : Risk of neural tube defect in the offspring can be minimised in pregnant women receiving antiepileptic drugs by supplemental therapy with: A. Folic acid B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin E D. Pyridoxine

Last Answer : B. Vitamin A