Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in the subjacent muscle and joint tissues upto a depth/distance of 10 cm from the site of application C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in the subjacent muscle and joint tissues upto a depth/distance of 10 cm from the site of application C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect
by

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Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Description : Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the ... the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Last Answer : A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug

Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Description : Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the ... the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Last Answer : A

What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief as well as prevents recurrences C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Description : What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords ... does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Last Answer : C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences

Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug are most marked if it is disposed by: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion D. Hepatic metabolism

Description : Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug are most marked if it is disposed by: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion D. Hepatic metabolism

Last Answer : D. Hepatic metabolism

Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug are most marked if it is disposed by: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion D. Hepatic metabolism

Description : Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug are most marked if it is disposed by: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion D. Hepatic metabolism

Last Answer : D. Hepatic metabolism

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Select the correct statement abut donepezil: A. It is a topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in glaucoma B. It is a catechol-'O'-methyl transferase inhibitor used as adjuvant in parkinson's disease C. It is a cerebroselective anticholinesterase that affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease D. It is a synthetic cannabinoid with antiemetic property

Description : Select the correct statement abut donepezil: A. It is a topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in glaucoma B. It is a catechol-'O'-methyl transferase inhibitor used as adjuvant in ... affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease D. It is a synthetic cannabinoid with antiemetic property

Last Answer : C. It is a cerebroselective anticholinesterase that affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's diseas

Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos

Description : Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos

Last Answer : A. Placebo is a dummy medication

The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in severe heart failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Description : The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in ... by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Select the drug which affords faster and greater symptomatic relief in benign hypertrophy of prostate: A. Terazosin B. Desmopressin C. Finasteride D. Sildenafi

Description : Select the drug which affords faster and greater symptomatic relief in benign hypertrophy of prostate: A. Terazosin B. Desmopressin C. Finasteride D. Sildenafi

Last Answer : A. Terazosin

The following antirheumatic drug affords symptomatic relief but does not bring about remission in rheumatoid arthritis: A. Gold sodium thiomalate B. Prednisolone C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Leflunomide

Description : The following antirheumatic drug affords symptomatic relief but does not bring about remission in rheumatoid arthritis: A. Gold sodium thiomalate B. Prednisolone C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Leflunomide

Last Answer : B. Prednisolone

Select the drug which affords faster and greater symptomatic relief in benign hypertrophy of prostate: A. Terazosin B. Desmopressin C. Finasteride D. Sildenafil

Description : Select the drug which affords faster and greater symptomatic relief in benign hypertrophy of prostate: A. Terazosin B. Desmopressin C. Finasteride D. Sildenafil

Last Answer : A. Terazosin

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning metabolic derangements in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome which may follow progressive shock? a. Alterations in glucose metabolism lead to the development of efficient substrate utilization b. A progressive rise in serum triglyceride levels result from less efficient clearance and increased hepatic lipogenesis c. A net negative nitrogen balance occurs due to the oxidative metabolism of proteins to meet energy needs d. The serum aromatic amino acids fall rapidly as they are actively used in oxidative metabolism

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning metabolic derangements in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome which may follow progressive shock? a. Alterations in glucose ... The serum aromatic amino acids fall rapidly as they are actively used in oxidative metabolism

Last Answer : Answer: b, c A broad spectrum of metabolic abnormalities become apparent in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome following shock. Disruption of the normal cycles of carbohydrate, ... acetyl coenzyme A. This results in reduced serum level of leucine, isoleucine and valine

Select the organic nitrate which undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Isosorbide dinitrate C. Isosorbide mononitrate D. Erythrityl tetranitrate

Description : Select the organic nitrate which undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Isosorbide dinitrate C. Isosorbide mononitrate D. Erythrityl tetranitrate

Last Answer : C. Isosorbide mononitrate

Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : A. Symptomatic relief

Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation

CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 41.1 Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering: A. Antacids B. Tetracyclines C. Phosphates D. Ascorbic acid

Description : CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 41.1 Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering: A. Antacids B. Tetracyclines C. Phosphates D. Ascorbic acid

Last Answer : D. Ascorbic acid

Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Last Answer : C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation

Choose the correct statement(s) about metronidazole: A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess B. It affords the most rapid symptom relief in amoebic dysentery C. It is the most effective drug in eradicating amoebic cysts from the colon D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about metronidazole: A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess B. It affords the most rapid symptom relief in amoebic dysentery C. It is the most effective drug in eradicating amoebic cysts from the colon D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess

Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Description : Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Last Answer : C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin

Select the sulfonamide drug which is active against Pseudomonas and is used by topical application for prophylaxis of infection in burn cases: A. Sulfadiazine B. Silver sulfadiazine C. Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole

Description : Select the sulfonamide drug which is active against Pseudomonas and is used by topical application for prophylaxis of infection in burn cases: A. Sulfadiazine B. Silver sulfadiazine C. Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole

Last Answer : B. Silver sulfadiazine

Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or inflammatory stimuli b. The liver and gut appear to be a major source of TNF following hypoperfusion c. Circulating levels of TNF correlate well with severity of tissue injury in shock d. Recently completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or ... completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Tumor necrosis factor (TNF), a protein product of activated macrophages, is secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or ... patients utilizing infusion of monoclonal antibodies to the TNF molecule have shown no overall survival benefit

n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause postural hypotension C. Used alone, they have high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension

The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Description : The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Last Answer : C. Proton pump inhibitors

Choose the correct statement about severity of side effects to oral iron medication: A. Ferrous salts are better tolerated than ferric salts B. Complex organic salts of iron are better tolerated than inorganic salts C. Liquid preparations of iron are better tolerated than tablets D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Description : Choose the correct statement about severity of side effects to oral iron medication: A. Ferrous salts are better tolerated than ferric salts B. Complex organic salts of iron are better ... better tolerated than tablets D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Last Answer : D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate clinical information b. The use of potassium hydroxide in preparing a specimen slide for light microscopy will be useful in identification of anaerobic bacteria c. Antibiotic sensitivity is determined by exposing the specific microorganism to varying amounts of antibiotic with the concentration of the antibiotic inhibiting growth referred to as the MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration) d. Serum levels of antimicrobial agents should achieve in excess of a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate ... a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Because most surgical infections are polymicrobial, specimens should be cultured for aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, as well as fungi. Although aerobic and aerotolerant ... fold increase over MIC during the peak serum level have been demonstrated to be clinically efficacious

Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible for attracting and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Description : Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible ... and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Last Answer : A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction

Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos

Description : Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos

Last Answer : A. Placebo is a dummy medication

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

Glycerol released from adipose tissue by hydrolysis of triglycerides is mainly (A) Taken up by liver (B) Taken up by extrahepatic tissues (C) Reutilised in adipose tissue (D) Excreted from the body FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 85

Description : Glycerol released from adipose tissue by hydrolysis of triglycerides is mainly (A) Taken up by liver (B) Taken up by extrahepatic tissues (C) Reutilised in adipose tissue (D) Excreted from the body FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 85

Last Answer : Answer : A

Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Description : Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Last Answer : D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Description : Adrenergic β2 agonists produce muscle tremor by: A. Facilitating neuromuscular transmission B. Incomplete fusion of contractile response of individual fibres C. Enhanced firing of muscle spindles D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Last Answer : D. Both (b) and (c) are correct

Neomycin is widely used as a topical antibiotic because: A. It is active against a wide range of bacteria causing superfecial infections B. It rarely causes contact sensitization C. It is poorly absorbed from the topical sites of application D. All of the above are correct

Description : Neomycin is widely used as a topical antibiotic because: A. It is active against a wide range of bacteria causing superfecial infections B. It rarely causes contact sensitization C. It is poorly absorbed from the topical sites of application D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

The most important channel of elimination of digoxin is: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Excretion in bile

Description : The most important channel of elimination of digoxin is: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Excretion in bile

Last Answer : A. Glomerular filtration

Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Description : Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Last Answer : B. Renal excretion

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability due to high first pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood–CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules

Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Description : Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Last Answer : C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

Which of the following is a high potency antipsychotic drug having minimal sedative and autonomic effects and no propensity to cause weight gain: A. Chlorpromazine B. Triflupromazine C. Haloperidol D. Olanzapine

Description : Which of the following is a high potency antipsychotic drug having minimal sedative and autonomic effects and no propensity to cause weight gain: A. Chlorpromazine B. Triflupromazine C. Haloperidol D. Olanzapine

Last Answer : C. Haloperido

A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland b. ACTH stimulation results in elevation of serum cortisol levels for up to a week after the operation c. An increased secretion of aldosterone and ADH may contribute to postoperative fluid retention d. An increase in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Description : A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic ... in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, c One of the earliest consequence of a surgical procedure is the rise in levels of circulating cortisol that occur in response to a sudden outpouring of ACTH ... hepatic glucose production, and, with other hormones (epinephrine and glucocorticoids), gluconeogenesis is maintained

What is informed consent in a clinical trial? a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses c) Fake treatment d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures

Description : What is informed consent in a clinical trial? a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses c) Fake treatment d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures

Last Answer : d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures 

Antigens and haptens have the following similarity: (A) They have high molecular weights (B) They can elicit immune response by themselves (C) They can elicit an immune response only in association with some other large molecule (D) Once an immune response develops, free antigen and free hapten can be recognized by the antibody

Description : Antigens and haptens have the following similarity: (A) They have high molecular weights (B) They can elicit immune response by themselves (C) They can elicit an immune response only in association ... ) Once an immune response develops, free antigen and free hapten can be recognized by the antibody

Last Answer : Answer : D

All the following statements about haptens are true except (A) They have high molecular weights (B) They cannot elicit an immune response by themselves (C) When combined with some other large molecule, they can elicit an immune response (D) Once an immune response develops, the free hapten can be recognized by the antibody

Description : All the following statements about haptens are true except (A) They have high molecular weights (B) They cannot elicit an immune response by themselves (C) When combined with some other large ... response (D) Once an immune response develops, the free hapten can be recognized by the antibody

Last Answer : Answer : A