Description : An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram ... orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment
Last Answer : A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally
Description : A patient presents with rheumatic fever and suspected allergy to penicillin. The antibiotic of choice is: A. Chloromycetin B. Sulphonamide C. Buffered penicillin D. Erythromycin could be better if is clindamycin E. Achromycin
Last Answer : D. Erythromycin could be better if is clindamycin
Description : What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?check A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache T B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic ... to 8 hours post operatively T E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with FlumazepilNE T
Last Answer : C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects not sure
Description : A child presents to you with a sore throat, fever and joint swelling; the MOST probable diagnosis is: A. Rheumatic fever B. Rheumatic arthritis C. Osteoarthritis
Last Answer : A. Rheumatic fever
Description : In which condition do you have to prescribe antibiotics prior to dental treatment: A. Rheumatic fever B. Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis C. By pass D. Valve replacement E. Uncontrolled diabetes F. All of the above
Last Answer : F. All of the above
Description : Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever Decreased PTT, bleeding time prolonged, deficiency factor VIII
Last Answer : A. Haemophilic disease
Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax
Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever
Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. ... /clavulanate (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Vancomycin
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin ... acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer
Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid
Description : A 65 years-old patient needs extraction of 44; he has taken insulin in the morning. What preoperative advice you should give: A. Take more sugar B. Maintain normal diet C. Antibiotic 2 hours before D. Medication increases preoperatively
Last Answer : B. Maintain normal diet
Description : Pre-operatively, the nurse identified the nursing dagnosis, Knowledge Deficit: Post-operative communication strategies . Which of the following is a relevant nursing intervention? A. ... uses an alternative form of verbal communication D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively
Last Answer : D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively
Description : A 50 years-old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining that he bled all night . Which of the following pre. existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: a. Blood ... 140/80 b. Gastric ulcer. c. Elevated prothrombin time. d. None of the above.
Last Answer : c. Elevated prothrombin time.
Description : A 50 years old man presents after a full mouth extraction complaining that he bled all night . Which of the following pre existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: A. Blood ... ulcer C. Elevated prothrombin time D. A & C are correct E. None of the above
Last Answer : D. A & C are correct
Description : A patient on dicoumarol treatment needs extraction. Which of the following is MOST valuable in evaluating surgical risks: A. Clotting time B. Bleeding time C. Prothrombin time D. Sedimentation rate E. Complete blood cell count
Last Answer : C. Prothrombin time
Description : All of the following should be considered for systemic antibiotic except: A. Extraction of tooth with acute dento alveolar abscess B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute. C. ... of 38 or 48 with acute pericoronitis D. Full mouth extraction for a patient with perio disease
Last Answer : B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute.
Description : Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be performed. Which of the following is NOT true: A. Minor post operative bleedings can be reduced somehow by using tranexamic acid B. ... takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects D. Heparin should be administered sub-cutaneous
Last Answer : C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects
Description : Rheumatic heart disease is treated with the help of: (1) Aspirin (2) Streptomycin (3) Methyl dopa (4) Penicillin
Last Answer : Aspirin
Description : A 36-year-old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted to hospital with malaise, chills and high fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of gramnegative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is ... (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin (d) Imipenem plus cilastatin (e) Ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid
Description : Choose the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant: A. Cloxacillin B. Amoxicillin C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin D. Piperacillin
Last Answer : B. Amoxicillin
Description : What is rheumatic fever ?
Last Answer : Usually if there is sore throat (tonsil problem) then if it is not treated properly and completely then it causes rheumatism. Rheumatism is a contagious disease. The onset of rheumatoid arthritis is usually within 2 to 4 weeks of a bacterial infection.
Description : Rheumatic fever?
Last Answer : DefinitionRheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that may develop after an infection with Streptococcus bacteria (such as strep throat or scarlet fever). The disease can affect the heart, joints, skin, ... result in shortness of breath and chest painJoint pain, arthritis (mainly in the knees,
Description : Systemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of (a) Exfoliative dermatitis (b) Posterior uveitis (c) Acute rheumatic fever (d) Hodgkin’s disease
Description : ______ follow streptococcal diseases and appear to be consequences of immune complex formation in the kidneys or heart. a. Scarlet fever b. Yellow fever c. Rheumatic fever d. Necrotizing fasciatis
Last Answer : c. Rheumatic fever
Description : Which one of the folowing is a complication of streptococcal pharyngitis? a. Rheumatic Fever b. Pseudomembrane Blockage c. Strawberry Tongue d. Chest, Back, And Leg Pain
Last Answer : a. Rheumatic Fever
Description : Which of the following condition is non-suppurativesequelae of Streptococcus pyogen A- Acute rheumatic fever B- Acute glomerulonephritis C- Erythema nodosum D- All of these
Last Answer : All of these
Description : Chloroquine is indicated in the following disorders except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Discoid lupus erythematosus C. Photogenic skin reactions D. Lepra reaction
Last Answer : B. Discoid lupus erythematosus
Description : Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not justified in the following condition: A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold B. Thoroughly cleaned contaminated wound C. Rheumatic fever in a child of 10 years D. Catheterization of urethra in an elderly male
Last Answer : A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold
Description : ystemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of: A. Exfoliative dermatitis B. Posterior uveitis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Hodgkin’s disease
Last Answer : C. Acute rheumatic feve
Description : Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone ... Active range of motion and isometrics are recommended during the remission stage of rheumatic diseases.
Last Answer : a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.
Description : Which of the following penicillins are readily destructed by stomach acid: A. Methicillin B. Cloxacillin C. Phenoxy methyl D. Penicillin G
Last Answer : D. Penicillin G
Description : Which antibiotic administered in childhood may result in tooth discolouration: A. Penicillin B. Tetracycline C. Streptomycin
Last Answer : B. Tetracycline
Description : How would you treat Denture Stomatitis A. Tetracycline B. Systemic penicillin C. Nystatin
Last Answer : C. Nystatin
Description : Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient ... chose (a) Cefixime (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Spectinomycin (e) Tetracycline
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting? a) A patient ... started taking ramipril. d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.
Last Answer : d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.
Description : What is 6000000 from earth?
Last Answer : Need answer
Description : The removable partial denture requires relining what would be the most appropriate action, A. take a new impression by asking the patient to occlude on it B. Provide equal space (maybe it was ... gingival tissues. C. Make sure the framework and retainers are seated in place before taking impression
Last Answer : C. Make sure the framework and retainers are seated in place before taking impression
Description : A 45 years-old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had no swelling, pain or ... B. Angioneurotic oedema C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Acute maxillary sinusitis E. Acute apical periodontitis
Last Answer : B. Angioneurotic oedema
Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, a. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction. b. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time. c. Heparin can be given subcutaneously ... rapidly. d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.
Last Answer : d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.
Description : A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by, a. Further review and reassurance since it will most ... Excision of the fistula and surgical closure. e. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.
Last Answer : d. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure.
Description : As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics ... and irrigation is mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth
Last Answer : C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology
Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, ** A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly D. It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin
Last Answer : B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time
Description : What is your management with a chronic oral antral fistula for some time after the extraction of maxillary first molar: A. Surgical closure B. Anti-biotic and nasal decongestant C. Wash the antrum D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The MOST common consequence arising from premature extraction of deciduous molars is: A. Loss of arch length B. Loss of speech sound C. Loss of facial contour D. Loss of vertical height E. Loss of free way space
Last Answer : A. Loss of arch length
Description : During extraction of a maxillary third molar the tuberosity is fractured; however, it remains in place attached to the mucoperiosteum. Which of the following procedures should be employed:** A. Remove the ... then suture. D. If fractured tuberosity is greater than 2 cm, leave in place and suture
Last Answer : B. Leave the tuberosity and stabilize if required
Description : On examination of an 8 years-old child you find 75 with carious exposure. On X-ray you find 35 missing. Your treatment is: A. Extraction of 75 allowing 36 to move mesially B. ... of 75 and place a fixed space retainer to be replaced with fixed bridge. D. Extraction of 65 and 75
Last Answer : B. Pulpotomy on 75 and wait indefinitely
Description : A primary molar has relatively un-resorbed roots encompassing the permanent tooth bud. What extraction technique would you use to avoid the inadvertent removal of a developing bicuspid
Last Answer : Section the tooth vertically and remove each root separately
Description : The MOST common consequence arising from premature extraction of deciduous molar is: A. Loss of arch length B. Loss of speech sound C. Loss of facial contour
Description : Why do you extract lower 8’s by directing the extraction lingually:** A. Because of the roots direction B. Thinner bone C. Lingual deviation
Last Answer : B. Thinner bone