A node with in degree = 0 and out degree ¹ 0 is known as A. Source node B. Destination node C. Transfer node D. None of the above.

A node with in degree = 0 and out degree ¹ 0 is known as
A. Source node
B. Destination node
C. Transfer node
D. None of the above.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Source node
by

Related questions

A node with in degree ¹ 0 and out degree = 0 is known as A. Source node B. Destination node C. Predicate node D. None of the above

Description : A node with in degree ¹ 0 and out degree = 0 is known as A. Source node B. Destination node C. Predicate node D. None of the above

Last Answer : B. Destination node

An independent path is the one A. That is a complete path from source to destination node B. That is a path which introduces at least one new set of processing statements C. That is a path which introduces at most one new set of processing statements D. None of the above

Description : An independent path is the one A. That is a complete path from source to destination node B. That is a path which introduces at least one new set of processing statements C. That is a path which introduces at most one new set of processing statements D. None of the above

Last Answer : B. That is a path which introduces at least one new set of processing statements

A predicate node is the one, which has A. Two outgoing edges B. No outgoing edges C. Three or more outgoing edges D. None of the above

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Last Answer : B. No outgoing edges A predicate node, also known as a decision node, is a type of node in a flowchart, decision tree, or other diagram that represents a logical decision point. It is a node ... where the flow of the process or algorithm is determined based on the outcome of the decision or test.

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Last Answer : a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

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When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as: A. Equivalence partitioning B. Boundary value analysis C. Decision table D. Hybrid analysis

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Last Answer : A. Equivalence partitioning

When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as: A. Equivalence partitioning B. Boundary value analysis C. Decision table D. Hybrid analysis

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Last Answer : B. Boundary value analysis

An expert based test estimation is also known as A. Narrow band Delphi B. Wide band Delphi C. Bespoke Delphi D. Robust Delphi

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Last Answer : A. Narrow band Delphi

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Last Answer : C. Adding known defects by seeding

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Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :- Disc = 0 Order-qty = 0 Read Order-qty If Order-qty >=20 then Disc = 0.05 If Order-qty >=100 then Disc =0.1 End if End if a) Statement coverage is 4 b) Statement coverage is 1

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Last Answer : b) Statement coverage is 1

Assume postal rates for 'light letters' are: $0.25 up to 10 grams; $0.35 up to 50 grams; $0.45 up to 75 grams; $0.55 up to 100 grams. Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis? A. 0, 9,19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99,100 B. 10, 50, 75,100, 250, 1000 C. 0, 1,10,11, 50, 51, 75, 76,100,101 D. 25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56

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Last Answer : C. 0, 1,10,11, 50, 51, 75, 76,100,101

‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99

Description : ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99

Last Answer : C. 0, 1, 99, 100

In a Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance values if the student clears the exam. A. 22,23,26 B. 21,39,40 C. 29,30,31 D. 0,15,22

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Last Answer : C. 29,30,31

An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004 The boundary values for testing this field are A. 0,1900,2004,2005 B. 1900, 2004 C. 1899,1900,2004,2005 D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

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Last Answer : C. 1899,1900,2004,2005

Find the Equivalence class for the following test case Enter a number to test the validity of being accepting the numbers between 1 and 99 A. All numbers < 1 B. All numbers > 99 C. Number = 0 D. All numbers between 1 and 99

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Last Answer : D. All numbers between 1 and 99

One technique of Black Box testing is Equivalence Partitioning. In a programstatement that accepts only one choice from among 10 possible choices,numbered 1 through 10, the middle partition would be from _____ to _____ a) 4 to 6 b) 0 to 10 c) 1 to 10 d) None of the above

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Last Answer : c) 1 to 10

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% the next £28000 is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class? a) £4800; £14000; £28000 b) £5200; £5500; £28000 c) £28001; £32000; £35000 d) £5800; £28000; £32000

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Last Answer : d) £5800; £28000; £32000

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%. The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%. To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case? A. £28000. B. £33501. C. £32001. D. £1500

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Last Answer : B. £33501.

Identify which one is a load condition A. Lost messages B. Task starts before its prerequisites are met. C. Lost or out of sync messages D. Early end of string

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Last Answer : A. Lost messages

Range of accelerating factor is a) 50 to 100 b) 1.3 to 1.7 c) 1 to 10 d) 10.8 to 11.2

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Last Answer : b) 1.3 to 1.7

The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as a) Configuration Control b) Status Accounting c) Configuration Identification d) Configuration Identification

Description : The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as a) Configuration Control b) Status Accounting c) Configuration Identification d) Configuration Identification

Last Answer : The provision and management of a controlled library containing all the configuration items is called Configuration Management. Configuration Management is the process of identifying, organizing, and ... Verification and Audit (ensuring that the configuration items are complete and accurate).

In case of Large Systems :- a) Only few tests should be run b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed. d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

Description : In case of Large Systems :- a) Only few tests should be run b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed. d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

Last Answer : b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk

Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:- i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation. iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect

Description : Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:- i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation. iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, ... ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect

Last Answer : b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect

Exit Criteria may consist of :- i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas iv. Verifying the Test Environment. a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect. b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

Description : Exit Criteria may consist of :- i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or ... correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

Last Answer : b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach? a) Top down b) Big-bang c) Bottom up d) Functional incrementation.

Description : Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach? a) Top down b) Big-bang c) Bottom up d) Functional incrementation.

Last Answer : b) Big-bang

Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :- a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works. b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free. c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do. d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

Description : Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :- a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works. b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the ... does what it is supposed to do. d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

Last Answer : d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities? i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons. a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false d) All of above are true

Description : Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities? i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons. a) i , ii , ... false c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false d) All of above are true

Last Answer : c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false

The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : - a) Anomaly Report b) Defect Report c) Test Defect Report d) Test Incident Report

Description : The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : - a) Anomaly Report b) Defect Report c) Test Defect Report d) Test Incident Report

Last Answer : a) Anomaly Report

Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :- Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 thenPrint “Large”End if If p > 50 then Print “pLarge” End if a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2 b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2 c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2 d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

Description : Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :- Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 thenPrint Large End if If p > 50 then Print pLarge End if a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch ... c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2 d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

Last Answer : c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2

Benefits of Independent Testing a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased. c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects. d) Independent Testers can test better than developers

Description : Benefits of Independent Testing a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased. c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects. d) Independent Testers can test better than developers

Last Answer : b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.

Regression testing should be performed: i. every week ii. after the software has changed iii. as often as possible iv. when the environment has changed v. when the project manager says a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

Description : Regression testing should be performed: i. every week ii. after the software has changed iii. as often as possible iv. when the environment has changed v. when the project manager says a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are ... iv are true, i, iii & v are false d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

Last Answer : c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false

Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:- a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques. b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques. c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques. d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.

Description : Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:- a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques. b) Equivalence partitioning ... , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.

Last Answer : c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.

Test Conditions are derived from :- a) Specifications b) Test Cases c) Test Data d) Test Design

Description : Test Conditions are derived from :- a) Specifications b) Test Cases c) Test Data d) Test Design

Last Answer : a) Specifications

Defects discovered by static analysis tools include: i. Variables that are never used. ii. Security vulnerabilities. iii. Programming Standard Violations iv. Uncalled functions and procedures a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect. c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect d) iv, ii is correct

Description : Defects discovered by static analysis tools include: i. Variables that are never used. ii. Security vulnerabilities. iii. Programming Standard Violations iv. Uncalled functions and procedures a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct b ... ,iv are incorrect. c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect d) iv, ii is correct

Last Answer : a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct

Success Factors for a review include: i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement. a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct d) ii is correct

Description : Success Factors for a review include: i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on ... and ii is incorrect c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct d) ii is correct

Last Answer : a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect

Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique? a) State transition testing b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) c) syntax testing d) boundary value analysis

Description : Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique? a) State transition testing b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) c) syntax testing d) boundary value analysis

Last Answer : b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)

Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process? a) Test Planning and Control b) Test implementation and Execution c) Requirement Analysis d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

Description : Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process? a) Test Planning and Control b) Test implementation and Execution c) Requirement Analysis d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

Last Answer : c) Requirement Analysis

Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle: i. Hi-level design a Unit tests ii. Code b Acceptance tests iii. Low-level design c System tests iv. Business requirements d Integration tests a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

Description : Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle: i. Hi-level design a Unit tests ii. Code b Acceptance tests iii. Low-level design c System tests iv. Business requirements d Integration tests a) i-d , ii ... i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

Last Answer : d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :- a) Explaining the objective b) Fixing defects found typically done by author c) Follow up d) Individual Meeting preparations

Description : The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :- a) Explaining the objective b) Fixing defects found typically done by author c) Follow up d) Individual Meeting preparations

Last Answer : a) Explaining the objective

Consider the following statements: i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Description : Consider the following statements: i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. iv. 100% decision ... & v are False d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Last Answer : d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Peer Reviews are also called as :- a) Inspection b) Walkthrough

Description : Peer Reviews are also called as :- a) Inspection b) Walkthroughc) Technical Review d) Formal Review

Last Answer : Technical Review

. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.Which of the following represents an invalid state transition? a) OFF to ON b) ON to OFF c) FAULT to ON Q15. Peer Reviews are also called as :- a) Inspection b) Walkthrough

Description : . Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.Which of the following represents an invalid state transition? a) OFF to ON b) ON to OFF c) FAULT to ON Q15. Peer Reviews are also called as :- a) Inspection b) Walkthrough

Last Answer : c) FAULT to ON

Functional system testing is: a) testing that the system functions with other systems b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times

Description : Functional system testing is: a) testing that the system functions with other systems b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times

Last Answer : c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole

Impact Analysis helps to decide :- a) How much regression testing should be done. b) Exit Criteria c) How many more test cases need to written. d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

Description : Impact Analysis helps to decide :- a) How much regression testing should be done. b) Exit Criteria c) How many more test cases need to written. d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

Last Answer : a) How much regression testing should be done.