Item transmittal report is also known as A. Incident report B. Release note C. Review report D. Audit report

Item transmittal report is also known as
A. Incident report
B. Release note
C. Review report
D. Audit report
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Release note
by

Related questions

The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : - a) Anomaly Report b) Defect Report c) Test Defect Report d) Test Incident Report

Description : The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : - a) Anomaly Report b) Defect Report c) Test Defect Report d) Test Incident Report

Last Answer : a) Anomaly Report

. One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days. Who is responsible for this incident? A. Test managers faults only B. Test lead faults only C. Test manager and proj

Description : . One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results ... incident? A. Test managers faults only B. Test lead faults only C. Test manager and proj

Last Answer : A. Test managers faults only

Success Factors for a review include: i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement. a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct d) ii is correct

Description : Success Factors for a review include: i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on ... and ii is incorrect c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct d) ii is correct

Last Answer : a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect

The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :- a) Explaining the objective b) Fixing defects found typically done by author c) Follow up d) Individual Meeting preparations

Description : The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :- a) Explaining the objective b) Fixing defects found typically done by author c) Follow up d) Individual Meeting preparations

Last Answer : a) Explaining the objective

Verification performed without any executable code is referred to as A. Review B. Static testing C. Validation D. Sanity testing

Description : Verification performed without any executable code is referred to as A. Review B. Static testing C. Validation D. Sanity testing

Last Answer : B. Static testing

Features to be tested, approach, item pass/fail criteria and test deliverables should be specified in which document? a) Test case specification b) Test procedure specification c) Test plan d) Test design specification

Description : Features to be tested, approach, item pass/fail criteria and test deliverables should be specified in which document? a) Test case specification b) Test procedure specification c) Test plan d) Test design specification

Last Answer : c) Test plan

Use of an executable model to represent the behavior of an object is called A. Simulation B. Software item C. Software feature D. None of the above

Description : Use of an executable model to represent the behavior of an object is called A. Simulation B. Software item C. Software feature D. None of the above

Last Answer : A. Simulation

System test can begin when? I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Description : System test can begin when? I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior ... . I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Last Answer : D. I, II and III

Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities? i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons. a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false d) All of above are true

Description : Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities? i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons. a) i , ii , ... false c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false d) All of above are true

Last Answer : c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false

During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do? A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer. B. Retest the module and confirm the bug C. Assign the same bug to another developer D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

Description : During the testing of a module tester X' finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it's not a bug. What X' should do? A. Report ... same bug to another developer D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

Last Answer : D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do? A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer. B. Retest the module and confirm the bug C. Assign the same bug to another developer D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

Description : During the testing of a module tester X' finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it's not a bug. What X' should do? A. Report ... same bug to another developer D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

Last Answer : D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

What are the four attributes to be present in any test problem?A. Statement, criteria, effect and cause B. Priority, fix, schedule and report C. Statement, fix effect and report D. None of the above.

Description : What are the four attributes to be present in any test problem?A. Statement, criteria, effect and cause B. Priority, fix, schedule and report C. Statement, fix effect and report D. None of the above.

Last Answer : A. Statement, criteria, effect and cause

Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except A. Test data B. Test data plan C. Test summary report D. Test procedure plan

Description : Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except A. Test data B. Test data plan C. Test summary report D. Test procedure plan

Last Answer : C. Test summary report

Test summary report A. Functional testing is mostly B. Validation techniques C. Verification techniques D. Both of the above E. None of the above

Description : Test summary report A. Functional testing is mostly B. Validation techniques C. Verification techniques D. Both of the above E. None of the above

Last Answer : B. Validation techniques

Drivers are also known as: i. Spade ii. Test harness iii. Scaffolding a) i , ii are true and iii is false b) i , iii are true and ii is false

Description : Drivers are also known as: i. Spade ii. Test harness iii. Scaffolding a) i , ii are true and iii is false b) i , iii are true and ii is false

Last Answer : c) ii , iii are true and i is false

An expert based test estimation is also known as A. Narrow band Delphi B. Wide band Delphi C. Bespoke Delphi D. Robust Delphi

Description : An expert based test estimation is also known as A. Narrow band Delphi B. Wide band Delphi C. Bespoke Delphi D. Robust Delphi

Last Answer : A. Narrow band Delphi

Peer Reviews are also called as :- a) Inspection b) Walkthrough

Description : Peer Reviews are also called as :- a) Inspection b) Walkthroughc) Technical Review d) Formal Review

Last Answer : Technical Review

. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.Which of the following represents an invalid state transition? a) OFF to ON b) ON to OFF c) FAULT to ON Q15. Peer Reviews are also called as :- a) Inspection b) Walkthrough

Description : . Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.Which of the following represents an invalid state transition? a) OFF to ON b) ON to OFF c) FAULT to ON Q15. Peer Reviews are also called as :- a) Inspection b) Walkthrough

Last Answer : c) FAULT to ON

When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as: A. Equivalence partitioning B. Boundary value analysis C. Decision table D. Hybrid analysis

Description : When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as: A. Equivalence partitioning B. Boundary value analysis C. Decision table D. Hybrid analysis

Last Answer : A. Equivalence partitioning

When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as: A. Equivalence partitioning B. Boundary value analysis C. Decision table D. Hybrid analysis

Description : When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as: A. Equivalence partitioning B. Boundary value analysis C. Decision table D. Hybrid analysis

Last Answer : B. Boundary value analysis

‘Be bugging’ is known as A. Preventing the defects by inspection B. Fixing the defects by debugging C. Adding known defects by seeding D. A process of fixing the defects by tester

Description : ‘Be bugging’ is known as A. Preventing the defects by inspection B. Fixing the defects by debugging C. Adding known defects by seeding D. A process of fixing the defects by tester

Last Answer : C. Adding known defects by seeding

COTS is known as A. Commercial off the shelf sA. Sanity testing B. System testing C. Smoke testing D. Regression testing

Description : COTS is known as A. Commercial off the shelf sA. Sanity testing B. System testing C. Smoke testing D. Regression testing

Last Answer : C. Smoke testing

COTS is known as A. Commercial off the shelf software B. Compliance of the software C. Change control of the software D. Capable off the shelf software

Description : COTS is known as A. Commercial off the shelf software B. Compliance of the software C. Change control of the software D. Capable off the shelf software

Last Answer : A. Commercial off the shelf software

__________ testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is known. A. Black Box testing B. Performance Testing C. White Box testing D. Functional testing

Description : __________ testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is known. A. Black Box testing B. Performance Testing C. White Box testing D. Functional testing

Last Answer : C. White Box testing

A node with in degree ¹ 0 and out degree = 0 is known as A. Source node B. Destination node C. Predicate node D. None of the above

Description : A node with in degree ¹ 0 and out degree = 0 is known as A. Source node B. Destination node C. Predicate node D. None of the above

Last Answer : B. Destination node

A node with in degree = 0 and out degree ¹ 0 is known as A. Source node B. Destination node C. Transfer node D. None of the above.

Description : A node with in degree = 0 and out degree ¹ 0 is known as A. Source node B. Destination node C. Transfer node D. None of the above.

Last Answer : A. Source node

Which of the following is the most likely first step an auditor would perform at the beginning of an initial audit engagement? a. Prepare a rough draft of the financial statements and of the auditor's report. b. Study and evaluate the system of internal administrative control. c. Tour the client's facilities and review the general records. d. Consult with and review the work of the predecessor auditor prior to discussing the engagement with the client management

Description : Which of the following is the most likely first step an auditor would perform at the beginning of an initial audit engagement? a. Prepare a rough draft of the financial statements and of ... and review the work of the predecessor auditor prior to discussing the engagement with the client management

Last Answer : Tour the client's facilities and review the general records

A report on factual findings is the end product of the auditor when performing: a. Audit. b. Review. c. Agreed-upon procedures. d. Compilation

Description : A report on factual findings is the end product of the auditor when performing: a. Audit. b. Review. c. Agreed-upon procedures. d. Compilation

Last Answer : Agreed-upon procedures

Which of the following is the most likely first step an auditor would perform at the beginning of an initial audit engagement? a. Prepare a rough draft of the financial statements and of the auditor's report. b. Study and evaluate the system of internal administrative control. c. Tour the client's facilities and review the general records. d. Consult with and review the work of the predecessor auditor prior to discussing the engagement with the client management

Description : Which of the following is the most likely first step an auditor would perform at the beginning of an initial audit engagement? a. Prepare a rough draft of the financial statements and of ... and review the work of the predecessor auditor prior to discussing the engagement with the client management

Last Answer : Tour the client's facilities and review the general records

Which of the following is the most likely first step an auditor would perform at the beginning of an initial audit engagement? a. Prepare a rough draft of the financial statements and of the auditor's report. b. Study and evaluate the system of internal administrative control. c. Tour the client's facilities and review the general records. d. Consult with and review the work of the predecessor auditor prior to discussing the engagement with the client management

Description : Which of the following is the most likely first step an auditor would perform at the beginning of an initial audit engagement? a. Prepare a rough draft of the financial statements and of ... and review the work of the predecessor auditor prior to discussing the engagement with the client management

Last Answer : Tour the client's facilities and review the general records

A report on factual findings is the end product of the auditor when performing: a. Audit. b. Review. c. Agreed-upon procedures. d. Compilation.

Description : A report on factual findings is the end product of the auditor when performing: a. Audit. b. Review. c. Agreed-upon procedures. d. Compilation.

Last Answer : Agreed-upon procedures

An accountant who reviews the financial statements should issue a report stating that a review a. Is substantially less in scope than an audit. b. Provides negative assurance that the internal control is functioning as designed. c. Provides only a limited assurance that the financial statements are fairly presented. d. Is substantially more in scope than a compilation

Description : An accountant who reviews the financial statements should issue a report stating that a review a. Is substantially less in scope than an audit. b. Provides negative assurance that the internal ... the financial statements are fairly presented. d. Is substantially more in scope than a compilation

Last Answer : Is substantially less in scope than an audit.

Each page of the financial information compiled by the accountant should include the following reference, except a. "Unaudited" b. "Compiled, Negative Assurance Expressed" c. "Compiled without Audit or Review" d. "Refer to Compilation Report

Description : Each page of the financial information compiled by the accountant should include the following reference, except a. "Unaudited" b. "Compiled, Negative Assurance Expressed" c. "Compiled without Audit or Review" d. "Refer to Compilation Report

Last Answer : "Compiled, Negative Assurance Expressed"

The objective of a review of financial statements is to: a. Express an opinion on the overall financial statements. b. Carry out audit procedures agreed on with the client and other users of report. c. State whether anything has come to the auditor's attention that indicates that the financial statements are not presented fairly. d. Assist the client in the preparation of the financial statements.

Description : The objective of a review of financial statements is to: a. Express an opinion on the overall financial statements. b. Carry out audit procedures agreed on with the client and other users of ... statements are not presented fairly. d. Assist the client in the preparation of the financial statements.

Last Answer : State whether anything has come to the auditor's attention that indicates that the financial statements are not presented fairly.

A review of a company's financial statements by a CPA firm: a. Is similar in scope to an audit and adds similar credibility to the statements. b. Is significantly less in scope than an audit and results in a report which provides positive assurance, although not absolute assurance. c. Concludes with the issuance of a report expressing the CPA's opinion as to the fairness of the financial statements. d. Is designed to provide only moderate assurance

Description : A review of a company's financial statements by a CPA firm: a. Is similar in scope to an audit and adds similar credibility to the statements. b. Is significantly less in scope than an ... s opinion as to the fairness of the financial statements. d. Is designed to provide only moderate assurance

Last Answer : Is designed to provide only moderate assurance

You own Dude, Inc., which manufactures wooden tables. You need to hire some accountants to prepare your monthly financial statements. The preparation of your financial statements is referred to as a(n) a. Audit. b. Review. c. Compilation. d. Special report

Description : You own Dude, Inc., which manufactures wooden tables. You need to hire some accountants to prepare your monthly financial statements. The preparation of your financial statements is referred to as a(n) a. Audit. b. Review. c. Compilation. d. Special report

Last Answer : Compilation.

Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001? a) monitoring and analysis of energy use b) verification of energy use c) submission of technical report with recommendations d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review

Description : Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001? a) monitoring and analysis of energy use b) verification of energy use c) submission of technical report with recommendations d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review

Last Answer : d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review

Ano ang kahulugan nang liham transmittal?

Description : Ano ang kahulugan nang liham transmittal?

Last Answer : Ito'y isang uri ng maikling liham na pangangalakal (business letter) na naglalaman ng dokumento na nagpapaliwanag ng kahalagahan nito. Ipinapaliwanag dito ang nais na iparating sa makatatanggap ng liham upang madaling maunawaan kung ano ang kanilang natanggap at kung bakit ito nila natanggap.

Which of the following statements is true? a. An independent auditor must be a CPA. b. Compliance audits are conducted to determine adherence to rules and regulations set by the auditor. c. An audit, if properly conducted, ensures that fraud is prevented. d. After conducting an audit and release of the auditor’s report, the primary responsibility on the fairness of the financial statements is shifted to the auditor

Description : Which of the following statements is true? a. An independent auditor must be a CPA. b. Compliance audits are conducted to determine adherence to rules and regulations set by the auditor. c. ... s report, the primary responsibility on the fairness of the financial statements is shifted to the auditor

Last Answer : An independent auditor must be a CPA.

Range of accelerating factor is a) 50 to 100 b) 1.3 to 1.7 c) 1 to 10 d) 10.8 to 11.2

Description : Range of accelerating factor is a) 50 to 100 b) 1.3 to 1.7 c) 1 to 10 d) 10.8 to 11.2

Last Answer : b) 1.3 to 1.7

The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as a) Configuration Control b) Status Accounting c) Configuration Identification d) Configuration Identification

Description : The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as a) Configuration Control b) Status Accounting c) Configuration Identification d) Configuration Identification

Last Answer : The provision and management of a controlled library containing all the configuration items is called Configuration Management. Configuration Management is the process of identifying, organizing, and ... Verification and Audit (ensuring that the configuration items are complete and accurate).

In case of Large Systems :- a) Only few tests should be run b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed. d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

Description : In case of Large Systems :- a) Only few tests should be run b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed. d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

Last Answer : b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk

Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:- i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation. iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect

Description : Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:- i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation. iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, ... ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect

Last Answer : b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect

Exit Criteria may consist of :- i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas iv. Verifying the Test Environment. a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect. b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

Description : Exit Criteria may consist of :- i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or ... correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

Last Answer : b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach? a) Top down b) Big-bang c) Bottom up d) Functional incrementation.

Description : Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach? a) Top down b) Big-bang c) Bottom up d) Functional incrementation.

Last Answer : b) Big-bang

Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :- a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works. b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free. c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do. d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

Description : Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :- a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works. b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the ... does what it is supposed to do. d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

Last Answer : d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader: i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how. iv. Create the Test Specifications a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Description : Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader: i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the ... is true and ii,iii,iv are false d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Last Answer : a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :- Disc = 0 Order-qty = 0 Read Order-qty If Order-qty >=20 then Disc = 0.05 If Order-qty >=100 then Disc =0.1 End if End if a) Statement coverage is 4 b) Statement coverage is 1

Description : Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :- Disc = 0 Order-qty = 0 Read Order-qty If Order-qty >=20 then Disc = 0.05 If Order-qty >=100 then Disc =0.1 End if End if a) Statement coverage is 4 b) Statement coverage is 1

Last Answer : b) Statement coverage is 1

Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :- Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 thenPrint “Large”End if If p > 50 then Print “pLarge” End if a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2 b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2 c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2 d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

Description : Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :- Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 thenPrint Large End if If p > 50 then Print pLarge End if a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch ... c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2 d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

Last Answer : c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2

Benefits of Independent Testing a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased. c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects. d) Independent Testers can test better than developers

Description : Benefits of Independent Testing a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased. c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects. d) Independent Testers can test better than developers

Last Answer : b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.