Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery
Last Answer : a. Poor
Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that the braking action is:
Last Answer : poor
Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received
Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately
Description : An example of a general call is: a. STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDAITELY b. BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE c. ALL STATIONS d. GOOD DAY
Last Answer : c. ALL STATIONS
Description : The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn
Last Answer : c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only
Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure
Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure
Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins
Last Answer : c. 30 mins
Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft
Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan
Description : In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services? a. ATC b. The Commander c. The local constabulary d. The Operations Dispatcher
Last Answer : a. ATC
Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary
Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary
Description : ATC will only report wind as gusting if: a. Gust speed exceeds mean speed by >15kts b. Gusts to over 25kts c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts d. Gusts to under 25kts
Last Answer : c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts
Description : The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: a. 118.7 b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD d. 118.7 X-CD
Last Answer : d. 118.7 X-CD
Description : The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency b. Discrete VHF only c. VOR frequency only d. Any ATC frequency
Last Answer : a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency
Description : The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message
Last Answer : c. Give no response
Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop
Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency
Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company
Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission
Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle
Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan
Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance
Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless ... , if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him
Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him
Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft
Last Answer : a. Pilot in command
Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative
Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions
Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC
Description : Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C
Last Answer : b. If asked by ATC
Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC
Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance
Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%
Last Answer : d. 2%
Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility
Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility
Description : At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is: a. Inoperative b. Operative c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes
Last Answer : a. Inoperative
Description : The phrase to use when you want to say “yes” is: a. AFFIRMATIVE b. ROGER c. WILCO d. AFFIRM
Last Answer : d. AFFIRM
Description : The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position
Last Answer : c. Wait and I will call you
Description : The phrase used to separate portions of a message is: a. BREAK BREAK b. I SAY AGAIN c. BREAK d. UMM
Last Answer : c. BREAK
Description : If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: a. WORDS TWICE b. I REPEAT c. I SAY AGAIN d. DITTO
Last Answer : c. I SAY AGAIN
Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday
Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
Description : Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
Last Answer : c. 5
Description : Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Last Answer : b. 2
Description : Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
Last Answer : b. 5
Description : The visual and aural indications obtained when overflying an ILS middle marker are: a. Continuous low pitched dashes with synchronized blue light b. Continuous high pitched dots with synchronized amber ... dots and dashes with amber light d. One letter in Morse with synchronized white light
Last Answer : c. Alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber light
Description : Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator
Last Answer : b. The captain
Description : To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently
Last Answer : a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days
Description : An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation ... right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track
Last Answer : c. 6nm left of track
Description : The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False
Last Answer : b. False
Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed
Last Answer : b. Descend
Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain
Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible
Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights
Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF
Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach
Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA
Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
Description : The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers
Last Answer : b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers
Description : The message “READABILITY 3” means: a. Readable now and then b. Unreadable c. Readable d. Readable but with difficulty
Last Answer : d. Readable but with difficulty