The magnetic heading reference unit has a precision rate of: a. 1°/min b. 2°/min c. 5°/min d. 3°/min

The magnetic heading reference unit has a precision rate of:  
a. 1°/min  
b. 2°/min  
c. 5°/min  
d. 3°/min
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. 2°/min
by

Related questions

The magnetic heading reference unit has a precision rate of: a. 1°/min b. 2°/min c. 5°/min d. 3°/min

Description : The magnetic heading reference unit has a precision rate of: a. 1°/min b. 2°/min c. 5°/min d. 3°/min

Last Answer : b. 2°/min

Which of the following does not react with acyl chlorides to form amides : (a) ammonia (b) 1° amine (c) 2° amine (d) 3° amine

Description : Which of the following does not react with acyl chlorides to form amides : (a) ammonia (b) 1° amine (c) 2° amine (d) 3° amine

Last Answer : 3° amine

Consider a 1°, 2° and 3° amine, all of equivalent molecular weight. Which amine is most likely to have the lowest boiling point? (a) 1° amine (b) 2° amine (c) 3° amine (d) Not enough information to determine

Description : Consider a 1°, 2° and 3° amine, all of equivalent molecular weight. Which amine is most likely to have the lowest boiling point? (a) 1° amine (b) 2° amine (c) 3° amine (d) Not enough information to determine

Last Answer : 3° amine

A sample of pure amine molecules is found to possess no intermolecular Hbonding. This sample is most likely : (a) 1° amine (b) 2° amine (c) 3° amine (d) all of these

Description : A sample of pure amine molecules is found to possess no intermolecular Hbonding. This sample is most likely : (a) 1° amine (b) 2° amine (c) 3° amine (d) all of these

Last Answer : 3° amine

Which of the following correctly reflects relative stabilities of carbocations? (a) 3° allylic > 2° > 1° benzylic (b) methyl > 2° benzylic > 3° (c) 3° benzylic > vinyl > 1°(d) 2° allylic > 2° > vinyl

Description : Which of the following correctly reflects relative stabilities of carbocations? (a) 3° allylic > 2° > 1° benzylic (b) methyl > 2° benzylic > 3° (c) 3° benzylic > vinyl > 1° (d) 2° allylic > 2° > vinyl

Last Answer : (d) 2° allylic > 2° > viny

If the radius of a main curve is 300 m and length of the transition curve is 100 m, the angle with tangent to locate the junction point, is (A) 1° 11' (B) 2° 11' (C) 3° 11' (D) 4° 11'

Description : If the radius of a main curve is 300 m and length of the transition curve is 100 m, the angle with tangent to locate the junction point, is (A) 1° 11' (B) 2° 11' (C) 3° 11' (D) 4° 11'

Last Answer : Answer: Option C

For clear distinct vision, images of obstructions should fall on the retina with a cone of (A) 2° (B) 3° (C) 4° (D) 5°

Description : For clear distinct vision, images of obstructions should fall on the retina with a cone of (A) 2° (B) 3° (C) 4° (D) 5°

Last Answer : Answer: Option D

An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3° glidescope. What is its rate of descent? a. 500 ft/min b. 300 ft/min c. 250 ft/min d. 600 ft/min

Description : An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3° glidescope. What is its rate of descent? a. 500 ft/min b. 300 ft/min c. 250 ft/min d. 600 ft/min

Last Answer : a. 500 ft/min

If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll

At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm

Description : At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm

Last Answer : a. 3.5nm

Tabling process used for separating two materials of different densities by passing the dilute pulp over a table/deck, which is inclined from the horizontal surface at an angle of about (A) 1 to 2° (B) 2 to 5° (C) 5 to 10° (D) 10 to 15°

Description : Tabling process used for separating two materials of different densities by passing the dilute pulp over a table/deck, which is inclined from the horizontal surface at an angle of about (A) 1 to 2° (B) 2 to 5° (C) 5 to 10° (D) 10 to 15°

Last Answer : (B) 2 to 5°

During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line

You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will: a. Remain approximately constant b. Increase by 10 kts c. Decrease by 10 kts d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA

Description : You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will: a. Remain approximately constant b. Increase by 10 kts c. Decrease by 10 kts d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA

Last Answer : a. Remain approximately constant

An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

What is DH used for? a. Visual maneuvering b. Circling to land c. Precision approaches d. Non-precision approaches

Description : What is DH used for? a. Visual maneuvering b. Circling to land c. Precision approaches d. Non-precision approaches

Last Answer : c. Precision approaches

A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

Description : A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such ... An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

Last Answer : c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3° glidescope. What is its rate of descent? a. 500 ft/min b. 300 ft/min c. 250 ft/min d. 600 ft/min

Description : An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3° glidescope. What is its rate of descent? a. 500 ft/min b. 300 ft/min c. 250 ft/min d. 600 ft/min

Last Answer : a. 500 ft/min

Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from the center of the island b. Range 45nm and QTE 240 from the center of the island c. Range 45nm and QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Description : An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from ... QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Last Answer : d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless of the direction from which B approaches b. Aircraft B, regardless of the direction from which A approaches c. Aircraft A, if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless ... , if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind c. Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the heading b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft c. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

Description : What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of ... planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

Last Answer : b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft

In a precision traverse, included angles are measured by setting the vernier (A) To read zero exactly on back station (B) To read 5° exactly on back station (C) Somewhere near zero and reading both verniers on back station (D) All the above

Description : In a precision traverse, included angles are measured by setting the vernier  (A) To read zero exactly on back station  (B) To read 5° exactly on back station  (C) Somewhere near zero and reading both verniers on back station  (D) All the above

Last Answer : (C) Somewhere near zero and reading both verniers on back station 

A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time and distance to PSR is: a. 1hr 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Description : A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time ... 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Last Answer : d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min

Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min

Last Answer : c. 24 min

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft. c. TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II can be fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic ... C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Last Answer : a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______. a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise b. AM, FM, clockwise c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise d. FM, AM, clockwise

Description : In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______. a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise b. AM, FM, clockwise c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise d. FM, AM, clockwise

Last Answer : a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise

At the magnetic equator: a. Dip is zero b. Variation is zero c. Deviation is zero d. The isogonal is an agonic line

Description : At the magnetic equator: a. Dip is zero b. Variation is zero c. Deviation is zero d. The isogonal is an agonic line

Last Answer : a. Dip is zero

The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero: a. Are magnetic b. Are compass c. Are relative d. Must have deviation applied before being used

Description : The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero: a. Are magnetic b. Are compass c. Are relative d. Must have deviation applied before being used

Last Answer : a. Are magnetic

The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH

Description : The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH

Last Answer : b. QDR

A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Last Answer : d. 2%

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw

Description : A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw

Last Answer : c. Augments stability

To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with: a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb speed (Vx) c. Flaps retracted and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

Description : To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with: a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb ... at best rate of climb speed (Vy) d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

Last Answer : d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps? a. Increased minimum glide angle b. Decreased minimum glide angle c. Increased glide range d. Decreased sink rate

Description : What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps? a. Increased minimum glide angle b. Decreased minimum glide angle c. Increased glide range d. Decreased sink rate

Last Answer : d. Decreased sink rate

A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Last Answer : c. Excess engine power

A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing

Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Description : Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Last Answer : a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption

At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Description : At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Last Answer : c. 30.3 USG/Hr

An aircraft is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate 1(one) turn? a. 30° b. 12° c. 18° d. 35°

Description : An aircraft is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate 1(one) turn? a. 30° b. 12° c. 18° d. 35°

Last Answer : c. 18°

With reference to the Natural Vegetation of India, classify the following trees under the heading: -SST 10th

Description : With reference to the Natural Vegetation of India, classify the following trees under the heading: -SST 10th

Last Answer : Tropical Evergreen: Ebony, Rosewood Monsoon or Deciduous: Teak, Eucalyptus, Sandalwood Desert: Khajuri, Babul Littoral or Tidal: Casuarina Mountain: Chir Pine

The cutter bar is set at about to the direction of motion in order to overcome the back-pushing action of the crops. a. 90° with inward lead of 2° c. 92° with inward lead of 2° d. None of above

Description : The cutter bar is set at about to the direction of motion in order to overcome the back-pushing action of the crops. a. 90° with inward lead of 2° c. 92° with inward lead of 2° d. None of above

Last Answer : Ans-         b. 88° with inward lead of 2°  

The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Last Answer : b. 15:1