Which of the following devices is designed specifically to support and immobilize a body part in a desired position? a) Splint A splint may be applied to a fractured extremity initially until swelling subsides.

Which of the following devices is designed specifically to
support and immobilize a body part in a desired position?
a) Splint
A splint may be applied to a fractured extremity initially until swelling
subsides.
b) Brace
A brace is an externally applied device to support a body part, control
movement, and prevent injury.
c) Continuous passive motion (CPM) device
A CPM device is an instrument that moves a body part to promote
healing and circulation.
d) Trapeze
A trapeze is an overhead patient-helping device to promote patient
mobility in bed.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Splint
A splint may be applied to a fractured extremity initially until swelling
subsides.
by

Related questions

Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis Lymphangitis is an acute inflammation of the lymphatic channels. c) Lymphedema Lymphedema is demonstrated by swelling of tissues in the extremities because of an increased quantity of lymph that results from an obstruction of lymphatic vessels. d) Elephantiasis Elephantiasis refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis ... refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Last Answer : a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes.

The nurse instructs the nursing attendant to perform cleansing enema until the return flow is clear. The nursing attendant understood the instruction when she says, “I will A. Call you when the return flow is clear” B. Stop the enema only if the return flow is without formed fecal material” C. Need 1 liter of tap water to have clear return flow” D. Put the client in left Sim’s position to achieve the desired return flow.”

Description : The nurse instructs the nursing attendant to perform cleansing enema until the return flow is clear. The nursing attendant understood the instruction when she says, I will A. Call you when the return flow is ... flow D. Put the client in left Sim's position to achieve the desired return flow.

Last Answer : A. Call you when the return flow is clear”

Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. c) Flail chest Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. d) Funnel chest Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan’s syndrome or rickets.

Description : Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest Barrel chest results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest ... depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan's syndrome or rickets.

Last Answer : a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position.

n assisting the client to do deep breathing, coughing and turning to the sides on the first post-operative day, which nursing action would be most helpful for the client? A. Restate the importance of respiratory exercises B. Give the client reassurance that can he can cough, breathe deeply and turn to sides safely C. Administer the prescribed analgesic round the clock as prescribed D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

Description : n assisting the client to do deep breathing, coughing and turning to the sides on the first post-operative day, which nursing action would be most helpful for the client? A. Restate ... the prescribed analgesic round the clock as prescribed D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

Last Answer : D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the ... growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Description : When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. ... the result of increased interstitial fluid and associated with disorders such as congestive heart failure.

Last Answer : a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

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Last Answer : a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

The most common symptom of esophageal disease is a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing. b) nausea. Nausea is the most common symptom of gastrointestinal problems in general. c) vomiting. Vomiting is a nonspecific symptom that may have a variety of causes. d) odynophagia. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain on swallowing.

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Last Answer : a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing.

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

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Last Answer : a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision ... with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

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Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

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Last Answer : a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the top dressing B. Continue to monitor the vital signs C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

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Last Answer : D. Assess the presence of a drain

To prevent footdrop, the patient is positioned in: a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used. b) A semi-sitting position in bed Semi-fowlers positioning is used to decrease the pressure of abdominal contents on the diaphragm. c) A sitting position with legs hanging off the side of the bed In order to prevent footdrop, the feet must be supported. d) A side-lying position Side-lying positions do not provide support to prevent footdrop.

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Mercury is typically used in the placement of which of the following tubes? a) Miller-Abbott Most nasoenteric tubes use mercury to carry the tube by gravity to its desired location. b) Gastric sump A gastric sump is used to decompress and empty the stomach. c) Dobbhoff Dobbhoff tubes are used for enteric feeding. d) EnterafloW Enteraflow tubes are used for enteric feeding

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Which skill needed by the nurse to think critically involves identification of patient problems indicated by data? a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data. b) Interpretation Interpretation is used to determine the significance of data that is gathered. c) Inferencing Inferences are used by the nurse to draw conclusions. d) Explanation Explanation is the justification of actions or interventions used to address patient problems and to help a patient move toward desired outcomes.

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Last Answer : a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data.

62. A 30-year-old client had cholesterol blood test before admission to the hospital. The nurse in charge would teach the family and significant others that the client should exercise to help keep the total cholesterol to a desired level of

Description : 62. A 30-year-old client had cholesterol blood test before admission to the hospital. The nurse in charge would teach the family and significant others that the client should exercise to help keep the total cholesterol to a desired level of

Last Answer : A. 140 mg/dl

Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

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Last Answer : a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active ... conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

A history of infection specifically caused by group A betahemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders? a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.

Description : A history of infection specifically caused by group A betahemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders? a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is ... chronic glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple myeloma, and renal vein thrombosis.

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Which of the following medications represents the category proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitors? a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. b) Sucralfate (Carafate) Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. c) Famotidine (Pepcid) Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. d) Metronidazole (Flagyl) Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

Description : Which of the following medications represents the category proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitors? a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine ... antagonist. d) Metronidazole (Flagyl) Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

Last Answer : a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells.

Which of the following procedures most specifically describes splitting or separating fused cardiac valve leaflets? a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis. b) Annuloplasty Annuloplasty refers to repair of a cardiac valve’s outer ring. c) Chordoplasty Chordoplasty refers to repair of the chordae tendonae of atroventricular valve leaflets. d) Valvuloplasty Valvuloplasty is a general term that refers to repair of a stenosed or regurgitant cardiac valve by commisurotomy, annuloplasty, leaflet repair, and/or chordoplasty.

Description : Which of the following procedures most specifically describes splitting or separating fused cardiac valve leaflets? a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis. b) ... or regurgitant cardiac valve by commisurotomy, annuloplasty, leaflet repair, and/or chordoplasty.

Last Answer : a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis.

Of the following oxygen administration devices, which has the advantage of providing high oxygen concentration? a) Non-rebreather mask The non-rebreather mask provides high oxygen concentration but is usually poor fitting. b) Venturi mask The Venturi mask provides low levels of supplemental oxygen. c) Catheter The catheter is an inexpensive device that provides a variable fraction of inspired oxygen and may cause gastric distention. d) Face tent A face tent provides a fairly accurate fraction of inspired oxygen, but is bulky and uncomfortable. It would not be the device of choice to provide high oxygen concentration.

Description : Of the following oxygen administration devices, which has the advantage of providing high oxygen concentration? a) Non-rebreather mask The non-rebreather mask provides high oxygen concentration but is ... and uncomfortable. It would not be the device of choice to provide high oxygen concentration.

Last Answer : a) Non-rebreather mask The non-rebreather mask provides high oxygen concentration but is usually poor fitting.

Running Gurus: Would you recommend shin splint support?

Description : Running Gurus: Would you recommend shin splint support?

Last Answer : This part of runnersworld.com has a wealth of information on shin splints. I don’t remember ever actually having pain in my shins so I can’t offer any personal advice.

A stone weighing 20 N is whirling in a vertical circle at the extremity of a string 100 cm long. The tension in the string will be zero a.at the highest position b.at the lowest position c.at the midway position d.at none of the above e.107 dynes

Description : A stone weighing 20 N is whirling in a vertical circle at the extremity of a string 100 cm long. The tension in the string will be zero a.at the highest position b.at the lowest position c.at the midway position d.at none of the above e.107 dynes

Last Answer : a. at the highest position

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. ... d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the patient’s management? a. Feeding into the stomach results in stimulation of the biliary/pancreatic axis which is probably trophic for small bowel b. Gastric secretions will dilute the feedings increasing the risk of diarrhea c. The major risk in this patient is tracheobronchial aspiration d. Placement of the feeding catheter through the pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Description : A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the ... pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The use of transnasal feeding catheters for intragastric feeding or for duodenal intubation are popular adjuncts for providing nutritional support by the enteral route. The ... the fourth portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feeding formulas

In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient’s residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions (morning and evening)? a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Description : In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient's residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions ... urine that is greater than 100 cc indicates that the suprapubic catheter cannot be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

When the balloon on the distal tip of a pulmonary artery catheter is inflated and a pressure is measured, the measurement obtained is referred to as the a) pulmonary artery wedge pressure. When the balloon is inflated, the tip of the catheter floats into smaller branches of the pulmonary arty until it can no longer be passed and the pressure is recorded, reflecting left atrial pressure and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

Description : When the balloon on the distal tip of a pulmonary artery catheter is inflated and a pressure is measured, the measurement obtained is referred to as the a) pulmonary artery wedge ... Cardiac output is determined through thermodilution involving injection of fluid into the pulmonary artery catheter.

Last Answer : a) pulmonary artery wedge pressure. When the balloon is inflated, the tip of the catheter floats into smaller branches of the pulmonary arty until it can no longer be passed and the pressure is recorded, reflecting left atrial pressure and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain. When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a vial that is almost empty. She was able to aspirate 60 mg only. Nurse Kristine decided to inject it instead of making the client wait until the next Demerol vial is available. The action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical principles?

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Last Answer : A. Justice

Instructions for the patient with low back pain include which of the following? a) When lifting, avoid overreaching. Instructions for the patient with low back pain should include that when lifting, the patient should avoid overreaching. The patient should also keep the load close to the body, bend the knees and tighten the abdominal muscles, use a wide base of support, and use a back brace to protect the back.

Description : Instructions for the patient with low back pain include which of the following? a) When lifting, avoid overreaching. Instructions for the patient with low back pain should include that when lifting, ... lifting, the patient with low back pain should bend the knees and tighten the abdominal muscles.

Last Answer : a) When lifting, avoid overreaching. Instructions for the patient with low back pain should include that when lifting, the patient should avoid overreaching. The patient should also keep the load close to the ... muscles, use a wide base of support, and use a back brace to protect the back.

Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of the patient with a white phosphorus chemical burn? a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of the patient with a white phosphorus chemical burn? a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from ... from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

Last Answer : a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

A continuous passive motion (CPM) device applied after knee surgery a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

Description : A continuous passive motion (CPM) device applied after knee surgery a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery ... applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

Last Answer : a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Description : When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the ... are removed routinely. Traction must be continuous to be effective in reducing and immobilizing fractures.

Last Answer : a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Mrs. C. Serdenio is currently enrolled in the master’s program at the State University and is currently writing her thesis. She applied as a chief nurse in St. John’s hospital and was accepted. Since her assumption to office, she has been signing documents as master’s graduate affixing “RN, MAN” to her name. the action of the chief nurse constitutes A. Misrepresentation B. Malpractice C. Personification D. Misdemeanor

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Last Answer : A. Misrepresentation

Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without the aid of prosthetic devices). It is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.

Description : Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is ... a stable refractive error. The corneal structure must be normal and refractive error stable.

Last Answer : a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without ... is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.

Which of the following venous access devices can be used for no more than 30 days in patients requiring parenteral nutrition? a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored, allows the patient freedom of movement, and provides easy access to the dressing site.

Description : Which of the following venous access devices can be used for no more than 30 days in patients requiring parenteral nutrition? a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the ... term home IV therapy (eg, Port A Cath, Mediport, Hickman Port, P.A.S. Port).

Last Answer : a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored, allows the patient freedom of movement, and provides easy access to the dressing site.

An audit designed to determine the extent to which the desired results of an activity established by the legislative or other authorizing body are being achieved. a. Economy audit b. Efficiency audit c. Program results audit d. Financial-related audit

Description : An audit designed to determine the extent to which the desired results of an activity established by the legislative or other authorizing body are being achieved. a. Economy audit b. Efficiency audit c. Program results audit d. Financial-related audit

Last Answer : Program results audit

The auditor's responsibility for failure to detect fraud arises a. Whenever the amounts involved are material. b. When such failure clearly results from noncompliance to generally accepted auditing standards. c. Only when such failure clearly results from negligence so gross as to sustain an inference of fraud on the part of the auditor. d. Only when the examination was specifically designed to detect fraud

Description : The auditor's responsibility for failure to detect fraud arises a. Whenever the amounts involved are material. b. When such failure clearly results from noncompliance to generally accepted auditing ... part of the auditor. d. Only when the examination was specifically designed to detect fraud

Last Answer : When such failure clearly results from noncompliance to generally accepted auditing standards.

The opening into the vagina on the perineum is termed the a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice. b) adnexa. Adnexa is a term used to describe the fallopian tubes and ovaries together. c) cervix. The cervix is the bottom (interior) part of the uterus that is located in the vagina. hymen. d) The hymen is a tissue that may cover the vaginal opening partially or completely before vaginal penetration.

Description : The opening into the vagina on the perineum is termed the a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice. b) adnexa. Adnexa is a term used to describe the fallopian tubes and ovaries ... The hymen is a tissue that may cover the vaginal opening partially or completely before vaginal penetration.

Last Answer : a) introitus. The introitus is the vaginal orifice.

Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the position of the patient’s head is changed with respect to gravity. The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Description : Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. ... as acetaminophen. BPPV is frequently stimulated by head trauma, infection, or other events.

Last Answer : a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the ... vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

Description : The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest ... . d) High Fowler's High Fowler's position is not indicated for the patient after liver biopsy.

Last Answer : a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler’s position

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not ... Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea refers to orthopnea that occurs only at night.

Last Answer : a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler’s position

Which of the following terms refers to leg pain that is brought on walking and caused by arterial insufficiency? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is brought on by exercise and relieved by rest. b) Dyspnea Dyspnea is the patient’s subjective statement of difficulty breathing. c) Orthopnea Orthopnea is the inability of the patient to breathe except in the upright (sitting) position. d) Thromboangitis obliterans Thomroangitis obliterans is a peripheral vascular disease also known as Burger’s disease.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to leg pain that is brought on walking and caused by arterial insufficiency? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is ... obliterans Thomroangitis obliterans is a peripheral vascular disease also known as Burger's disease.

Last Answer : a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is brought on by exercise and relieved by rest.

Which of the following terms is used to describe inability to breathe easily except in an upright position? a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing. b) Dyspnea Dyspnea refers to labored breathing or shortness of breath. c) Hemoptysis Hemoptysis refers to expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract. d) Hypoxemia Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe inability to breathe easily except in an upright position? a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler's position to facilitate ... blood from the respiratory tract. d) Hypoxemia Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood.

Last Answer : a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing.