54. Albert is prescribed NSAID every four hours to relieve, fever, inflammation, and pericardial pain. To maximize the effect of the drug, the nurse would administer it

54. Albert is prescribed NSAID every four hours to relieve,
fever, inflammation, and pericardial pain. To maximize the
effect of the drug, the nurse would administer it
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Round the clock on a consistent basis
by

Related questions

51. Albert came to the hospital with chest pain and fever. After a thorough assessment by the doctor, he was admitted for pericarditis management. The nurse positions the client to reduce pain and discomfort. Describe this position.

Description : 51. Albert came to the hospital with chest pain and fever. After a thorough assessment by the doctor, he was admitted for pericarditis management. The nurse positions the client to reduce pain and discomfort. Describe this position.

Last Answer : C. Sit the client upright and lean forward

55. The nurse wants to know if the client is aware of the side effects of NSAID. What would be the most appropriate question of the nurse?

Description : 55. The nurse wants to know if the client is aware of the side effects of NSAID. What would be the most appropriate question of the nurse?

Last Answer : B. “Have you ever vomited blood or noticed very black stools?”

n assisting the client to do deep breathing, coughing and turning to the sides on the first post-operative day, which nursing action would be most helpful for the client? A. Restate the importance of respiratory exercises B. Give the client reassurance that can he can cough, breathe deeply and turn to sides safely C. Administer the prescribed analgesic round the clock as prescribed D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

Description : n assisting the client to do deep breathing, coughing and turning to the sides on the first post-operative day, which nursing action would be most helpful for the client? A. Restate ... the prescribed analgesic round the clock as prescribed D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

Last Answer : D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Description : 72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Last Answer : A. It decreases the risk of bleeding

Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Description : Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria

Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Description : Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. Differ from each other in the degree of attendant psychological dependence

The Code of Ethics states that the nurse’s primary commitment is to the client whether an individual of family, group or community. Which nursing activity would best demonstrate the ethical principle called justice? A. The nurse providing care on a “first come – first served” basis B. Referring the client for evaluation to the social worker on duty regarding her socio-economic status C. The client’s preference is least considered D. The nurse’s providing care to maximize health according to available resources

Description : The Code of Ethics states that the nurse's primary commitment is to the client whether an individual of family, group or community. Which nursing activity would best demonstrate the ethical ... is least considered D. The nurse's providing care to maximize health according to available resources

Last Answer : A. The nurse providing care on a “first come – first served” basis

When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid. b) crackles. Crackles are soft, high-pitched, discontinuous popping sounds that occur during inspiration. c) sonorous wheezes. Sonorous wheezes are deep, low-pitched rumbling sounds heard primarily during expiration. d) sibilant wheezes. Sibilant wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

Description : When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A ... wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

Last Answer : a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid.

To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 – 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare the client for which specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Description : To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 - 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare ... specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Last Answer : B. Ultrasonography

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient's fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are ... 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

57. The client was prescribed Ocreotide acetate (Sandostatin). Nurse Carla would monitor for which of the following side effects?

Description : 57. The client was prescribed Ocreotide acetate (Sandostatin). Nurse Carla would monitor for which of the following side effects?

Last Answer : A. Abdominal pain

38. A nurse encounters a client who refuses to take a prescribed medication. What is the appropriate action of the nurse?

Description : 38. A nurse encounters a client who refuses to take a prescribed medication. What is the appropriate action of the nurse?

Last Answer : C. Explore the possible reason why the client refuses the prescribed medication

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Description : When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) ... urination is a sign of urinary tract infection, not an adverse effect of gamma-globulin infusion.

Last Answer : a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Description : When the nurse observes the patient's urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake ... white urine may indicate infection, pyruria, or in the female patient, the use of vaginal creams.

Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

The most common complication after knee arthroscopy is a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the pressure.

Description : The most common complication after knee arthroscopy is a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the ... Complaints of the knee locking are associated with functioning of the injured knee prior to arthroscopy.

Last Answer : a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the pressure.

Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Description : Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. ... Complications of plantar fasciitis include neuromuscular damage and decreased ankle range of motion.

Last Answer : a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

The nurse teaches the patient about glargine (Lantus), a “peakless” basal insulin including which of the following statements? a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering glargine (Lantus) insulin it is very important to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient about glargine (Lantus), a peakless basal insulin including which of the following statements? a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a ... action Glargine is a peakless basal insulin that is absorbed very slowly over a 24-hour period.

Last Answer : a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering ... to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Description : During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A ... or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.

Last Answer : a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Description : A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ... and symptoms have stabilized with no indication of further progression of the hypoxic insult to the brain.

Last Answer : a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Description : When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in ... residual exceeds 100 cc, the tube feeding should be withheld at that time, but not indefinitely.

Last Answer : a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach. b) Minimize intake of caffeine, ****, milk, and foods containing peppermint and spearmint. The patient should be instructed to avoid the listed foods and food components. c) Elevate the foot of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks The patient should be instructed to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not ... blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Last Answer : a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

89. A nurse has to attend a committee meeting for two hours. She delegates her work to another nurse. What primary consideration should be observed?

Description : 89. A nurse has to attend a committee meeting for two hours. She delegates her work to another nurse. What primary consideration should be observed?

Last Answer : D. Competency to perform the given function

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient’s residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions (morning and evening)? a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Description : In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient's residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions ... urine that is greater than 100 cc indicates that the suprapubic catheter cannot be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the pain to occur, the nurse recognizes that the patient is describing a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

Description : When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the ... or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment.

Last Answer : a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Description : Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b ... pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Last Answer : a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.

77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain. When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a vial that is almost empty. She was able to aspirate 60 mg only. Nurse Kristine decided to inject it instead of making the client wait until the next Demerol vial is available. The action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical principles?

Description : 77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain. When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a ... next Demerol vial is available. The action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical principles?

Last Answer : A. Justice

52. The nurse is aware that pericarditis pain varies from mild to severe and is typically aggravated by

Description : 52. The nurse is aware that pericarditis pain varies from mild to severe and is typically aggravated by

Last Answer : B. Inspiration, coughing, movement of the upper body

43. Mr. Gomez, 71 years old, has a history of chronic back pain. He thinks that his family perceives him as a “weakling” because he often asks for pain medication. Which of the following is the most therapeutic response of the nurse?

Description : 43. Mr. Gomez, 71 years old, has a history of chronic back pain. He thinks that his family perceives him as a “weakling” because he often asks for pain medication. Which of the following is the most therapeutic response of the nurse?

Last Answer : A. “It seems that you are worried. Which matter to you more? What people will say or getting relief from your pain?”

41. For a client complaining of mild musculoskeletal pain, the nurse will anticipate that the treatment for this client’s level of discomfort will include which of the following?

Description : 41. For a client complaining of mild musculoskeletal pain, the nurse will anticipate that the treatment for this client’s level of discomfort will include which of the following?

Last Answer : B. Acetaminophen

Nurse Fely did her admission. She understands that the pain is characterized as A. Tenderness that is generalized in the upper epigastric area B. Pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the left shoulder C. Tenderness and rigidity at the left epigastric area radiating to the back D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Description : Nurse Fely did her admission. She understands that the pain is characterized as A. Tenderness that is generalized in the upper epigastric area B. Pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the ... to the back D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Last Answer : D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Description : The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Last Answer : A. Gastric decompression

After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Description : After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Last Answer : A. Assess patency of the airway

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

When bowel sounds are heard about every 15 seconds, the nurse would record that the bowel sounds are a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds. b) hypoactive. Hypoactive bowel sounds is the description given to auscultation of one to two bowel sounds in 2 minutes. c) sluggish. Sluggish is not a term a nurse would use to accurately describe bowel sounds. d) absent. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3-5 minutes.

Description : When bowel sounds are heard about every 15 seconds, the nurse would record that the bowel sounds are a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds. b) hypoactive. Hypoactive bowel sounds ... absent. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3-5 minutes.

Last Answer : a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds.

Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in the subjacent muscle and joint tissues upto a depth/distance of 10 cm from the site of application C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Description : Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in ... a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Last Answer : C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic. ... inflammation of the urethra. d) Interstitial nephritis Interstitial nephritis is inflammation of the kidney.

Last Answer : a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.