Anthelmintics solutions when given orally are called as C A. Drench B. Bolus C. Both a and b D. None

Anthelmintics solutions when given orally are called as
C
A. Drench
B. Bolus
C. Both a and b
D. None
by

1 Answer

Answer :

Both a and b
by

Related questions

Anthelmintics may be administered as D A. Drench B. Bolus C. Injection D. All of above

Description : Anthelmintics may be administered as D A. Drench B. Bolus C. Injection D. All of above

Last Answer : All of above

Oral preparations of anthelmintics are called as A A. Drench B. Spot on C. Pour on D. All of above

Description : Oral preparations of anthelmintics are called as A A. Drench B. Spot on C. Pour on D. All of above

Last Answer : Drench

What is Drench ?

Description : What is Drench ?

Last Answer : Drench means to soak.

Broad spectrum anthelmintics include D A. Benzimidazoles B. Triclabendazole C. Organophosphate D. Both a and b

Description : Broad spectrum anthelmintics include D A. Benzimidazoles B. Triclabendazole C. Organophosphate D. Both a and b

Last Answer : Both a and b

Anthelmintics are used to A A. Kill the worms B. Remove the eggs from pasture C. Both D. None

Description : Anthelmintics are used to A A. Kill the worms B. Remove the eggs from pasture C. Both D. None

Last Answer : Kill the worms

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Narrow spectrum anthelmintics include D A. Organophosphate B. Triclabendazole C. Benzimidazole D. None

Description : Narrow spectrum anthelmintics include D A. Organophosphate B. Triclabendazole C. Benzimidazole D. None

Last Answer : None

Anthelmintics are chemicals used to kill D A. Flatworm B. Tapeworm C. Roundworm D. All of above

Description : Anthelmintics are chemicals used to kill D A. Flatworm B. Tapeworm C. Roundworm D. All of above

Last Answer : All of above

Anthelmintics are chemicals used to kill A A. Helminths B. InsectsC. Arachnids D. Protozooa

Description : Anthelmintics are chemicals used to kill A A. Helminths B. Insects C. Arachnids D. Protozooa

Last Answer : Protozooa

Acidic pulp in stomach is called (a) Chyle (b) Chyme (c) Bolus (d) None

Description : Acidic pulp in stomach is called (a) Chyle (b) Chyme (c) Bolus (d) None

Last Answer : (b) Chyme

Which of the following helps in lubricating and adhering the mastricated food particles into a bolus

Description : Which of the following helps in lubricating and adhering the mastricated food particles into a bolus

Last Answer : Which of the following helps in lubricating and adhering the mastricated food particles into a bolus ... Secretion of lacrymal gland D. Gastric juice

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable. (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : Ans: D

Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except A. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline) B. After iv bolus, rapidly ... C) Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements D) Has good analgesic ...

Description : Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except A. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline) B. After iv bolus, rapidly ... C) Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements D) Has good analgesic ...

Last Answer : Ans: D

What name does the food bolus that passes from the stomach to the duodenum get?

Description : What name does the food bolus that passes from the stomach to the duodenum get?

Last Answer : The partially digested and semifluid food bolus that leaves the stomach and enters the duodenum is called chyme.

When food is swallowed the swallow reflex is activated and the larynx elevates and closes to avoid portions of the food bolus entering the trachea causing aspiration of strange material to the bronchi. Digestion System - Image Diversity: esophagus

Description : When food is swallowed the swallow reflex is activated and the larynx elevates and closes to avoid portions of the food bolus entering the trachea causing aspiration of strange material to the bronchi. Digestion System - Image Diversity: esophagus

Last Answer : Is the esophagus a muscular organ?

The saliva pH is approximately 6.8. It is thus a slightly acid pH. Saliva lubricates the food bolus and initiates the enzymatic extracellular digestion of food. It also works as a buffer for the mouth pH and it has an important role of having IgA antibodies (also present in tears, colostrum, mother’s milk and in the mucosae of the intestine and airways) that protect the organism against pathogens.

Description : The saliva pH is approximately 6.8. It is thus a slightly acid pH. Saliva lubricates the food bolus and initiates the enzymatic extracellular digestion of food. It also works as a buffer for the ... 's milk and in the mucosae of the intestine and airways) that protect the organism against pathogens.

Last Answer : What is the salivary digestive enzyme? Which type of food does it digest and into which smaller molecules does it transform the food?

When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Description : When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in ... residual exceeds 100 cc, the tube feeding should be withheld at that time, but not indefinitely.

Last Answer : a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

The most common symptom of esophageal disease is a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing. b) nausea. Nausea is the most common symptom of gastrointestinal problems in general. c) vomiting. Vomiting is a nonspecific symptom that may have a variety of causes. d) odynophagia. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain on swallowing.

Description : The most common symptom of esophageal disease is a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on ... have a variety of causes. d) odynophagia. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain on swallowing.

Last Answer : a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing.

The muscle responsible for maintaining the bolus of food while chewing is: A. Buccinator B. Orbicularis oris

Description : The muscle responsible for maintaining the bolus of food while chewing is: A. Buccinator B. Orbicularis oris

Last Answer : A. Buccinator

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

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Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

Assertion : Insulin is not given orally. Reason : Insulin hormone is lipid-soluble and directily enters inside the cell membrane.

Description : Assertion : Insulin is not given orally. Reason : Insulin hormone is lipid-soluble and directily enters inside the cell membrane.

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Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because (A) it gets degraded in the GIT (B) it causes severe diarrhoea (C) it causes metallic taste in the mouth (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT

Description : Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because (A) it gets degraded in the GIT (B) it causes severe diarrhoea (C) it causes metallic taste in the mouth (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT

Last Answer : (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

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A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed abdominal distention and an ashen gray appearance. Which is the most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed ... most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico

Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

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The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis

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Last Answer : B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis

The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

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Last Answer : B. Hydrochlorothiazide

The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

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Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Which of the following drugs has been used both as orally active nasal decongestant as well as appetite suppressant, and has been implicated in precipitating haemorrhagic stroke: A. Dexfenfluramine B. Phenylpropanolamine C. Isoxsuprine D. Oxymetazoline

Description : Which of the following drugs has been used both as orally active nasal decongestant as well as appetite suppressant, and has been implicated in precipitating haemorrhagic stroke: A. Dexfenfluramine B. Phenylpropanolamine C. Isoxsuprine D. Oxymetazoline

Last Answer : B. Phenylpropanolamine

Do you think communication technologies like blogs, instant messaging, texting, and the like, have weakened humanity's ability to communicate orally?

Description : Do you think communication technologies like blogs, instant messaging, texting, and the like, have weakened humanity's ability to communicate orally?

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What are the odds of a cancer patient surviving ten years without eating or drinking orally and being fed liquids only pumped into the stomach?

Description : What are the odds of a cancer patient surviving ten years without eating or drinking orally and being fed liquids only pumped into the stomach?

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How did the oral culture enter print and how was the printed material transmitted orally ? -SST 10th

Description : How did the oral culture enter print and how was the printed material transmitted orally ? -SST 10th

Last Answer : Oral culture entered print in the following ways: (i) Printers published popular ballads and folk tales. (ii) Books were profusely illustrated with pictures. Printed material was transmitted orally ... example, Indian novelist Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay used to read out his novels to a gathering.

How did the oral culture enter print and how was the printed material transmitted orally? -SST 10th

Description : How did the oral culture enter print and how was the printed material transmitted orally? -SST 10th

Last Answer : Before print culture came, common people lived in the world of oral culture. They heard sacred texts read out, ballads recited and folktales narrated. Knowledge was transferred orally, ... and printed material was orally transmitted. The hearing public and the reading public became intermingled.

How to use olive oil orally and what are the benefits ?

Description : How to use olive oil orally and what are the benefits ?

Last Answer : You can apply a small amount of oil on your face and massage it on your face and body . In winter, you will get rid of redness on the skin, get rid of cracked skin , and you will feel radiant.

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective a adrenergic blockers are not because (a) It is the only orally active a blocker (b) It improves plasma lipid profile (c) It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release (d) It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective a adrenergic blockers are not because (a) It is the only orally active a blocker (b) It improves plasma lipid profile (c) It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release (d) It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine

Description : Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine

Last Answer : Ans: E

Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that (a) More potent orally (b) Longer acting (c) Less muscarinic side effects (d) All of the above

Description : Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that (a) More potent orally (b) Longer acting (c) Less muscarinic side effects (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: B

Following gold compound is generally administered orally (a) Aurothioglucose (b) Auronafin (c) Gold sodium thiomalate (d) All of the above

Description : Following gold compound is generally administered orally (a) Aurothioglucose (b) Auronafin (c) Gold sodium thiomalate (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: B

Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is (a) Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes (b) Destroyed by gastric acid (c) Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values (d) Insoluble in water

Description : Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is (a) Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes (b) Destroyed by gastric acid (c) Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values (d) Insoluble in water

Last Answer : Ans: C

A man has an Escherichia coli bacteremia with a low-grade fever (101.6°F). Appropriate management of his fever would be (a) Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally every 4 hours (b) Give aspirin 650 mg orally every 4 hours (c) Give alternating doses of aspirin and acetaminophen every 4 hours (d) Withhold antipyretics, and use the fever curve to monitor his response to antibiotic therapy (e) Use tepid water baths to reduce the fever

Description : A man has an Escherichia coli bacteremia with a low-grade fever (101.6°F). Appropriate management of his fever would be (a) Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally every 4 hours (b) Give aspirin 650 ... fever curve to monitor his response to antibiotic therapy (e) Use tepid water baths to reduce the fever

Last Answer : Ans: D

Any allegation made orally or in writing to a magistrate, with view to his taking action under this code, that some person, whether known or unknown has committed an offence but not include a police report a) Complainant b) Report c) Complaint d) None of these

Description : Any allegation made orally or in writing to a magistrate, with view to his taking  action under this code, that some person, whether known or unknown has committed an  offence but not include a police report  a) Complainant b) Report c) Complaint d) None of these

Last Answer : c) 2(e)

In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: a. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally. b. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis . c. The 5 year survival rate is 20%. d. The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin. e. Commonly occurs intra orally.

Description : In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: a. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally. b. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis ... incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin. e. Commonly occurs intra orally.

Last Answer : c. The 5 year survival rate is 20%.

A physician refers a nine years-old boy to you to confirm diagnosis. The boy has a fever of 40°C and coughing. When you focus your light into his eyes he turns away. Intra-orally there are white spots surrounded by red margins. The disease and lesions are: A. Measles and Koplik’s spots B. AHGS vesicles

Description : A physician refers a nine years-old boy to you to confirm diagnosis. The boy has a fever of 40°C and coughing. When you focus your light into his eyes he turns away. Intra-orally there are white ... by red margins. The disease and lesions are: A. Measles and Koplik's spots B. AHGS vesicles

Last Answer : A. Measles and Koplik’s spots

In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: A. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally B. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis C. The 5 years survival rate is 20% D. The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin E. Commonly occurs intra orally

Description : In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: A. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally B. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis ... The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin E. Commonly occurs intra orally

Last Answer : C. The 5 years survival rate is 20%

An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally B. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Description : An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram ... orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Last Answer : A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally

Select the drug that is used orally to treat scabies: A. Permethrin B. Ivermectin C. Praziquantel D. Crotamiton

Description : Select the drug that is used orally to treat scabies: A. Permethrin B. Ivermectin C. Praziquantel D. Crotamiton

Last Answer : B. Ivermectin

Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

Description : Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

Last Answer : A. Quiniodochlor

What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients