Pseudo-cholinesterase deficiency is manifested as what?

Pseudo-cholinesterase deficiency is manifested as what?
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Succinyl choline apnoea; prolonged apnea when succinyl choline is given as anesthetic drug.
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If results of the serum bilirubin, serum ALP, LDH and AST determinations suggest obstructive jaundice, the best confirmatory test would be the estimation of (A) Serum ALT (B) Serum 5’ nucleotidase (C) Serum Pseudo cholinesterase (D) None of these

Description : If results of the serum bilirubin, serum ALP, LDH and AST determinations suggest obstructive jaundice, the best confirmatory test would be the estimation of (A) Serum ALT (B) Serum 5’ nucleotidase (C) Serum Pseudo cholinesterase (D) None of these

Last Answer : Answer : B

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Physostigmine is a competitive inhibitor of (A) Xanthine oxidase (B) Cholinesterase (C) Carbonic anhydrase (D) Monoamine oxidase

Description : Physostigmine is a competitive inhibitor of (A) Xanthine oxidase (B) Cholinesterase (C) Carbonic anhydrase (D) Monoamine oxidase

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(3) two light nuclei combine to form a heavy nucleus Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the process of making a single heavy nucleus (part of an atom) from two lighter nuclei. The difference in mass between the products and reactants is manifested as the release of large amounts of energy. Fusion is the process that powers active or "main sequence" stars, or other high magnitude stars.

Description : (3) two light nuclei combine to form a heavy nucleus Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the process of making a single heavy nucleus (part of an atom) from two lighter nuclei. The difference in mass ... . Fusion is the process that powers active or "main sequence" stars, or other high magnitude stars.

Last Answer : Helium is added to the oxygen supply of deep sea divers because it is - (1) less poisonous than nitrogen (2) (2) Lighter than nitrogen (3) Readily miscible with oxygen (4) less soluble in blood than nitrogen at high pressure

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A classic sign of cardiogenic shock is a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). b) High blood pressure Low blood pressure is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock. c) Hyperactive bowel sounds Hypoactive bowel sounds are classic signs of cardiogenic shock. d) Increased urinary output Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

Description : A classic sign of cardiogenic shock is a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). b) High blood pressure Low blood pressure is ... . d) Increased urinary output Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

Last Answer : a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation).

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

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Last Answer : Ans: A

Avermectins act against parasites by C A. Stopping the energy metabolism B. Inhibiting the Cholinesterase C. Changing the chloride ion channel activity D. None of these

Description : Avermectins act against parasites by C A. Stopping the energy metabolism B. Inhibiting the Cholinesterase C. Changing the chloride ion channel activity D. None of these

Last Answer : Changing the chloride ion channel activity

The following enzymes on the left are responsible for the synthesis of the neurotransmitters on the right: a. monoamine oxidase: noradrenaline b. cholinesterase: acetylcholine c. catechol-o-methyl transferase: dopamine d. dopa decarboxylase: adrenaline

Description : The following enzymes on the left are responsible for the synthesis of the neurotransmitters on the right: a. monoamine oxidase: noradrenaline b. cholinesterase: acetylcholine c. catechol-o-methyl transferase: dopamine d. dopa decarboxylase: adrenaline

Last Answer : dopa decarboxylase: adrenaline

Pralidoxime can reactivate cholinesterase enzyme that has been inactivated by: A. Carbamate anticholinesterases B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases C. Both carbamate and organophosphate anticholinesterases D. Reversible anticholinesterases

Description : Pralidoxime can reactivate cholinesterase enzyme that has been inactivated by: A. Carbamate anticholinesterases B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases C. Both carbamate and organophosphate anticholinesterases D. Reversible anticholinesterases

Last Answer : B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases

Edrophonium is more suitable for differentiating myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis because of its: A. Shorter duration of action B. Longer duration of action C. Direct action on muscle end-plate D. Selective inhibition of true cholinesterase

Description : Edrophonium is more suitable for differentiating myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis because of its: A. Shorter duration of action B. Longer duration of action C. Direct action on muscle end-plate D. Selective inhibition of true cholinesterase

Last Answer : A. Shorter duration of action

The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind acetylcholine B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules C. Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Description : The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind ... degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Last Answer : B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules

Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme molecule in case of the following anticholinesterase: A. Edrophonium B. Neostigmine C. Dyflos D. Tacrine

Description : Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme molecule in case of the following anticholinesterase: A. Edrophonium B. Neostigmine C. Dyflos D. Tacrine

Last Answer : B. Neostigmine

The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Edrophonium D. Dyflos

Description : The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Edrophonium D. Dyflos

Last Answer : C. Edrophonium

Pseudocholinesterase differs from true cholinesterase in that: A. It does not hydrolyse acetylcholine B. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at a slower rate C. It is more susceptible to inhibition by physostigmine D. It is the only form of circulating cholinesterase

Description : Pseudocholinesterase differs from true cholinesterase in that: A. It does not hydrolyse acetylcholine B. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at a slower rate C. It is more susceptible to inhibition by physostigmine D. It is the only form of circulating cholinesterase

Last Answer : B. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at a slower rate

Pralidoxime can reactivate cholinesterase enzyme that has been inactivated by: A. Carbamate anticholinesterases B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases C. Both carbamate and organophosphate anticholinesterases D. Reversible anticholinesterases

Description : Pralidoxime can reactivate cholinesterase enzyme that has been inactivated by: A. Carbamate anticholinesterases B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases C. Both carbamate and organophosphate anticholinesterases D. Reversible anticholinesterases

Last Answer : B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases

Edrophonium is more suitable for differentiating myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis because of its: A. Shorter duration of action B. Longer duration of action C. Direct action on muscle end-plate D. Selective inhibition of true cholinesterase

Description : Edrophonium is more suitable for differentiating myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis because of its: A. Shorter duration of action B. Longer duration of action C. Direct action on muscle end-plate D. Selective inhibition of true cholinesterase

Last Answer : A. Shorter duration of action

The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind acetylcholine B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules C. Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Description : The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind ... degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Last Answer : B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules

Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme molecule in case of the following anticholinesterase: A. Edrophonium B. Neostigmine C. Dyflos D. Tacrine

Description : Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme molecule in case of the following anticholinesterase: A. Edrophonium B. Neostigmine C. Dyflos D. Tacrine

Last Answer : B. Neostigmine

The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Edrophonium D. Dyflos

Description : The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Edrophonium D. Dyflos

Last Answer : C. Edrophonium

Pseudocholinesterase differs from true cholinesterase in that: A. It does not hydrolyse acetylcholine B. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at a slower rate C. It is more susceptible to inhibition by physostigmine D. It is the only form of circulating cholinesterase

Description : Pseudocholinesterase differs from true cholinesterase in that: A. It does not hydrolyse acetylcholine B. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at a slower rate C. It is more susceptible to inhibition by physostigmine D. It is the only form of circulating cholinesterase

Last Answer : B. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at a slower rate

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