Description : Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : All the following diuretics inhibit the carbonic anhydrase except (A) Acetazolamide (B) Bumetanide (C) Furosemide (D) Ethacrynic acid
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : The following diuretic reduces positive free water clearance but does not affect negative free water clearance: A. Hydroflumethiazide B. Furosemide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Mannitol
Last Answer : A. Hydroflumethiazide
Description : Select the diuretic which is similar in efficacy and pattern of electrolyte excretion to furosemide, but is 40 times more potent dose to dose: A. Piretanide B. Bumetanide C. Xipamide D. Metolazone
Last Answer : B. Bumetanide
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina ? (a) Digoxin (b) Furosemide (c) Enalapril (d) Amrinone
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack (a) Digoxin (b) Furosemide (c) Enalapril (d) Amrinone
Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : The oral absorption of following osmotic diuretic is negligible (a) Glycerin (b) Mannitol (c) Isosorbide (d) All of the above
Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic inhibits action of aldosterone (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above
Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Vasoactive drugs which cause the arteries and veins to dilate, thereby shunting much of the intravascular volume to the periphery and causing a reduction in preload and afterload include agents ... Furosemide (Lasix) Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that reduces intravascular fluid volume.
Last Answer : a) Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) Sodium nitroprusside is used in the treatment of cardiogenic shock.
Description : Which of the following medications is categorized as a loop diuretic? a) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix is commonly used in the treatment of cardiac failure. b) Chlorothiazide (Diuril) ... thiazide diuretic. d) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Spironolactone is categorized as a potassium-sparing diuretic.
Last Answer : a) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix is commonly used in the treatment of cardiac failure.
Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop ... C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion
Last Answer : A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions
Description : Which of the following diuretics would be most useful in a patient with cerebral edema? (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Ethacrynic acid (d) Furosemide (e) Mannitol
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : A diuretic which is an aldosterone antagonist is (A) Spironolactone (B) Ethacrynic acid (C) Acetazolamide (D) Chlorothiazide
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic, it is practically not used because: A. It is more ototoxic B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow dose range D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone
Description : Of the following diuretic medications, which conserves potassium? a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic. b) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix causes loss of ... (Diuril) Diuril causes mild hypokalemia. d) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) Hygroton causes mild hypokalemia.
Last Answer : a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.
Description : At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride
Last Answer : C. Acetazolamide
Description : The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation
Last Answer : B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic
Description : Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema
Last Answer : C. Cerebral edema
Description : The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone
Last Answer : B. Furosemide
Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide
Last Answer : D. Furosemide
Description : The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride
Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic
Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor
Description : Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide
Last Answer : C. Mannitol
Description : Which of the following drugs is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility ? (a) Cyclandelate (b) Theophyline (c) Pentoxiphyline (d) Nicotinic acid
Description : After being counseled about lifestyle and dietary changes, the patient was started on atorvastatin. During his treatment with atorvastatin, it is important to routinely monitor serum concentrations of (a) ... Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase (c) Platelets (d) Red blood cells (e) Uric acid
Description : Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids? (a) Indole-3-acetic acid (b) Gibberellic acid (c) Abscisic acid (d) Indole butyric acid
Last Answer : (c) Abscisic acid
Description : The ethyl derivative of acetoacetic ester on basic-hydrolysis gives (a) Acetic acid (b) Acetic acid and propionic acid (c) Propionic acid (d) Acetic acid and n-butyric acid
Last Answer : Acetic acid
Description : Major lipid class present in chylomicrons is (a) Endogenous triglycerides (b) Cholesterol esters (c) Dietary triglycerides (d) All of the above
Description : Major beneficial effect of nitrates in classical angina is due to (a) Dilation of veins more than arteries (b) Increase in total coronary blood flow (c) An increase in the end diastolic size of the heart (d) An increase in the heart rate
Description : Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina
Description : Following statement is true about lidocaine (a) Reduce the slope of Phase 4 (b) Threshold excitability is not altered (c) Action potential is not affected (d) All of the above
Description : The agent given sublingually in an acute attack of angina pectoris is (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Amyl nitrite (c) Erythrital tetranitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
Description : Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation
Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility
Description : Cardiac glycosides are obtained from following plant source. (a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Strophanthus gratus (c) Ricinus commounts. (d) Atropa belladonna
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril
Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Dipyridamole (c) Propranolol (d) Diltiazem
Description : Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris because (a) They antagonize each other's side effects (b) Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium ... load (c) Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener ? (a) Pinacidil (b) Hydralazine (c) Glibenclamide (d) Amiloride
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate
Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life
Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil
Description : In cardiac cells, adenosine (a) Causes shortening of action potential duration (b) Depolarization (c) Increase in normal automaticity (d) All of the above
Description : The dihydropyridines block the following type of calcium channels. (a) L-type voltage sensitive channels (b) T-type voltage sensitive channels (c) N-type voltage sensitive channels (d) Receptor operated calcium channels
Description : A patient suffers from spisodic pain diffusely localized over the chest and upper abdomen, which is relieved by sublingual glyceryl trinitrate. He could be suffering from (a) Angina pectoris (b) Biliary colic (c) Esophageal spasm (d) All of the above
Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion