After being counseled about lifestyle and dietary changes, the patient was started on atorvastatin. During his treatment with atorvastatin, it is important to routinely monitor serum concentrations of (a) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (b) Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase (c) Platelets (d) Red blood cells (e) Uric acid

After being counseled about lifestyle and dietary changes, the patient was started on atorvastatin. During his treatment with atorvastatin, it is important to routinely monitor serum concentrations of (a) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (b) Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase (c) Platelets (d) Red blood cells (e) Uric acid
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A 54-year-old woman with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of (a) Agranulocytosis (b) Gallstones (c) Lactic acidosis (d) Myopathy (e) Thyrotoxicosis

Description : A 54-year-old woman with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of (a) Agranulocytosis (b) Gallstones (c) Lactic acidosis (d) Myopathy (e) Thyrotoxicosis

Last Answer : Ans: D

Rank the following laboratory tests and procedures in terms of their relative value to a 65-year-old woman who is to undergo elective resection of a sigmoid cancer. A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). C. Electrocardiogram (ECG). D. Hemoglobin concentration (Hgb). E. Serum creatinine (Cr). F. Arterial blood oxygen tension (PaO 2) on room air. G. Serum sodium concentration (Na+).

Description : Rank the following laboratory tests and procedures in terms of their relative value to a 65-year-old woman who is to undergo elective resection of a sigmoid cancer. A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). B. ... Arterial blood oxygen tension (PaO 2) on room air. G. Serum sodium concentration (Na+).

Last Answer : Answer: CDFEBAG DISCUSSION: The most important test by far is the electrocardiogram, with its capacity to indicate signs of occult heart disease. The second most important evaluation is the hemoglobin ... for resection of the colon is always normal and would be of least value among these tests

Two nitrogen atoms of Urea in the urea cycle come from (A) NH3 (B) One from NH3 and one from aspartate (C) One from NH3 and one from glutamate (D) One from NH3 and one from alanine

Description : Two nitrogen atoms of Urea in the urea cycle come from (A) NH3 (B) One from NH3 and one from aspartate (C) One from NH3 and one from glutamate (D) One from NH3 and one from alanine

Last Answer : Answer : B

The 2 nitrogen atoms in urea are contributed by (A) Ammonia and glutamate (B) Glutamine and glutamate (C) Ammonia and aspartate (D) Ammonia and alanine

Description : The 2 nitrogen atoms in urea are contributed by (A) Ammonia and glutamate (B) Glutamine and glutamate (C) Ammonia and aspartate (D) Ammonia and alanine

Last Answer : Answer : C

Which one of the following tests would be most effective in ruling out the presence of active hepatocellular disease?A. Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) B. Serum total bilirubin C. cell surface markers D. None of these

Description : Which one of the following tests would be most effective in ruling out the presence of active hepatocellular disease? A. Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) B. Serum total bilirubin C. cell surface markers D. None of these

Last Answer : Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) Relaxes vascular smooth muscle (d) Slows the depolarization phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: B

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium

Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium

Last Answer : Ans: D

Along with CO2, NH3 and ATP, the amino acid that is needed in urea cycle is (A) Alanine (B) Isoleucine (C) Aspartate (D) Glycine

Description : Along with CO2, NH3 and ATP, the amino acid that is needed in urea cycle is (A) Alanine (B) Isoleucine (C) Aspartate (D) Glycine

Last Answer : Answer : C

Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported with both essential and nonessential amino acid therapy of patients in renal failure. B. Essential amino acids retard the rise of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) secondary to decreased urea appearance. C. Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose are a convenient form of therapy for hyperkalemia. D. Essential amino acids decrease BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.

Description : Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported ... BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose, as opposed to hypertonic dextrose alone, was reported by Abel and co-workers to be associated with a decreased mortality rate ... renal failure have not been carried out in sufficient numbers to yield answers to this question

Major lipid class present in chylomicrons is (a) Endogenous triglycerides (b) Cholesterol esters (c) Dietary triglycerides (d) All of the above

Description : Major lipid class present in chylomicrons is (a) Endogenous triglycerides (b) Cholesterol esters (c) Dietary triglycerides (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

The major catabolic product of pyrimidines in human is (A) β-Alanine (B) Urea (C) Uric acid (D) Guanine

Description : The major catabolic product of pyrimidines in human is (A) β-Alanine (B) Urea (C) Uric acid (D) Guanine

Last Answer : Answer : A

When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return

Description : When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return

Last Answer : Ans: A

Increased serum levels of which of the following may be associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis? (a) Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) (b) Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) (c) Intermediate – density lipoproteins (IDL) (d) High-density lipoproteins (HDL) (e) Cholesterol

Description : Increased serum levels of which of the following may be associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis? (a) Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) (b) Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) (c) Intermediate – density lipoproteins (IDL) (d) High-density lipoproteins (HDL) (e) Cholesterol

Last Answer : Ans: D

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable. (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : Ans: D

The liver enzyme which is sensitive indicator of liver cell injury and is most helpful in recognizing acute hepatocellular diseases is Options: 1) Alkaline Phosphatase 2) Aspartate aminotransferase 3) Gamma glutamyl Transpeptidase 4) Creatine Phosphokinase

Description : The liver enzyme which is sensitive indicator of liver cell injury and is most helpful in recognizing acute hepatocellular diseases is Options: 1) Alkaline Phosphatase 2) Aspartate aminotransferase 3) Gamma glutamyl Transpeptidase 4) Creatine Phosphokinase

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 2) Aspartate aminotransferase

In purine nucleus nitrogen atom at 1 position is derived from (A) Aspartate (B) Glutamate (C) Glycine (D) Alanine

Description : In purine nucleus nitrogen atom at 1 position is derived from (A) Aspartate (B) Glutamate (C) Glycine (D) Alanine

Last Answer : Answer : A

For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min

Description : For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min

Last Answer : Ans: B

A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above

Description : In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to (a) Concomitant use of antacids (b) Fods containing tyramine (c) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over – the – counter decongestants

Description : A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to ... ) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over - the - counter decongestants

Last Answer : Ans: C

If the patient has a history of gout, which of the following drugs is most likely to exacerbate this condition? (a) Colestipol (b) Gemfibrozil (c) Lovastatin (d) Niacin (e) Simvastatin

Description : If the patient has a history of gout, which of the following drugs is most likely to exacerbate this condition? (a) Colestipol (b) Gemfibrozil (c) Lovastatin (d) Niacin (e) Simvastatin

Last Answer : Ans: D

A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from? a) Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Description : A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/ ... Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Last Answer : d) Overdose toxicity 

Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate

Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate

Last Answer : Ans: C

A patient suffers from spisodic pain diffusely localized over the chest and upper abdomen, which is relieved by sublingual glyceryl trinitrate. He could be suffering from (a) Angina pectoris (b) Biliary colic (c) Esophageal spasm (d) All of the above

Description : A patient suffers from spisodic pain diffusely localized over the chest and upper abdomen, which is relieved by sublingual glyceryl trinitrate. He could be suffering from (a) Angina pectoris (b) Biliary colic (c) Esophageal spasm (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : Ans: C

A patient on oral anticoagulant therapy is commenced on sulfamethoxazoletrimethoprim, double-strength twice daily. One may expect to see the international normalized ratio (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain unchanged

Description : A patient on oral anticoagulant therapy is commenced on sulfamethoxazoletrimethoprim, double-strength twice daily. One may expect to see the international normalized ratio (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain unchanged

Last Answer : Ans: A

A patient to be commenced on oral anticoagulant therapy for DVT would be treated with (a) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal intenational normalized ration (INR) of 2–3 (b) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal INR of 2.5–3.5 (c) Oral anticoagulant therapy with aspirin for a goal INR of 2–3

Description : A patient to be commenced on oral anticoagulant therapy for DVT would be treated with (a) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal intenational normalized ration (INR) of 2-3 (b) Oral anticoagulant therapy ... of 2.5-3.5 (c) Oral anticoagulant therapy with aspirin for a goal INR of 2-3

Last Answer : Ans: A

Situations that predispose a digitalistreated patient to toxicity include (a) Hypercalcemia (b) Hyperkalemia (c) Hypermagnesemia

Description : Situations that predispose a digitalistreated patient to toxicity include (a) Hypercalcemia (b) Hyperkalemia (c) Hypermagnesemia

Last Answer : Ans: A

In case of acute pain of angina pectoris the most effective treatment would be to administer (a) Mannitol hexanitrate (b) Erythrityl tetranitrate (c) Sodium nitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate (e) Nitroglycerin

Description : In case of acute pain of angina pectoris the most effective treatment would be to administer (a) Mannitol hexanitrate (b) Erythrityl tetranitrate (c) Sodium nitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate (e) Nitroglycerin

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol

Description : Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: C

A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil

Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of male impotence and activates prostaglandin E1 receptors? (a) Alprostadil (b) Fluoxetine (c) Mifepristone (d) Sildenafil (e) Zafirlukast

Description : Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of male impotence and activates prostaglandin E1 receptors? (a) Alprostadil (b) Fluoxetine (c) Mifepristone (d) Sildenafil (e) Zafirlukast

Last Answer : Ans: A

If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia

Description : If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia

Last Answer : Ans: D

An important feature of maple syrup urine disease is (A) Patient can not be treated by dietary regulation (B) Without treatment death, of patient may occur by the end of second year of life (C) Blood levels of leucine, isoleucine and serine are increased (D) Excessive brain damage

Description : An important feature of maple syrup urine disease is (A) Patient can not be treated by dietary regulation (B) Without treatment death, of patient may occur by the end of second year of life (C) Blood levels of leucine, isoleucine and serine are increased (D) Excessive brain damage

Last Answer : Answer : D

The end product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism in uricotelic organisms (reptiles and birds) is (A) Bilirubin (B) Urea (C) Uric acid (D) Biliverdin

Description : The end product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism in uricotelic organisms (reptiles and birds) is (A) Bilirubin (B) Urea (C) Uric acid (D) Biliverdin

Last Answer : Answer : C

The major end product of protein nitrogen metabolism in man is (A) Glycine (B) Uric acid (C) Urea (D) NH3

Description : The major end product of protein nitrogen metabolism in man is (A) Glycine (B) Uric acid (C) Urea (D) NH3

Last Answer : Answer : C

The four nitrogen atoms of purines are derived from (A) Urea and NH3 (B) NH3, Glycine and Glutamate (C) NH3, Asparate and Glutamate (D) Aspartate, Glutamine and Glycine

Description : The four nitrogen atoms of purines are derived from (A) Urea and NH3 (B) NH3, Glycine and Glutamate (C) NH3, Asparate and Glutamate (D) Aspartate, Glutamine and Glycine

Last Answer : Answer : D

Methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline cause which one of the following? (a) Vasoconstriction in many vascular beds (b) Decrease in the amount of cAMP in mast cells (c) Bronchodilation (d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (e) Sedation

Description : Methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline cause which one of the following? (a) Vasoconstriction in many vascular beds (b) Decrease in the amount of cAMP in mast cells (c) Bronchodilation (d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (e) Sedation

Last Answer : Ans: C

The amino acid that undergoes oxidative deamination at significant rate is (A) Alanine (B) Aspartate (C) Glutamate (D) Glutamine

Description : The amino acid that undergoes oxidative deamination at significant rate is (A) Alanine (B) Aspartate (C) Glutamate (D) Glutamine

Last Answer : Answer : C

A 73 year old male presented with an acute attack of gout in his left knee. What is the most likely underlying metabolic cause? 1) decreased renal excretion of uric acid 2) endogenous overproduction of uric acid 3) excessive dietary purine intake 4) lactic acidosis 5) starvation

Description : A 73 year old male presented with an acute attack of gout in his left knee. What is the most likely underlying metabolic cause? 1) decreased renal excretion of uric acid 2) endogenous overproduction of uric acid 3) excessive dietary purine intake 4) lactic acidosis 5) starvation

Last Answer : Answers-1 The aetiology of gout can broadly be divided into cases where there is underexcretion of urate via the kidney (90%) or endogenous overproduction of uric acid (10%) although in practical ... diuretic use. Excessive dietary intake of purines is unlikely to be the main cause in this case.

The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is (a) Increase in total coronary blood flow (b) Redistribution of coronary blood flow (c) Reduction of cardiac preload (d) Reduction of cardiac after load

Description : The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is (a) Increase in total coronary blood flow (b) Redistribution of coronary blood flow (c) Reduction of cardiac preload (d) Reduction of cardiac after load

Last Answer : Ans: C

In cardiac cells, adenosine (a) Causes shortening of action potential duration (b) Depolarization (c) Increase in normal automaticity (d) All of the above

Description : In cardiac cells, adenosine (a) Causes shortening of action potential duration (b) Depolarization (c) Increase in normal automaticity (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

Enhanced automaticity in cardiac cells may occur because of (a) ß-adrenergic stimulation (b) Hypokalemia (c) Mechanical stretch of cardiac muscles (d) All of the above

Description : Enhanced automaticity in cardiac cells may occur because of (a) ß-adrenergic stimulation (b) Hypokalemia (c) Mechanical stretch of cardiac muscles (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels? (a) Trimethadione (b) Clofibrate (c) Flucytosine (d) Coumarin (e) Propranolol

Description : Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels? (a) Trimethadione (b) Clofibrate (c) Flucytosine (d) Coumarin (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following agents used in prinzmetal’s angina has spasmolytic actions, which increase coronary blood supply? (a) Nitroglycerin (b) Nifedipine (c) Timolol (d) Isosorbide mononitrate (e) Propranolol

Description : Which of the following agents used in prinzmetal’s angina has spasmolytic actions, which increase coronary blood supply? (a) Nitroglycerin (b) Nifedipine (c) Timolol (d) Isosorbide mononitrate (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

What drug is used to prevent embolism in the lung and during myocardial infarction? (a) Alteplase (b) Human growth hormone (c) Granulocyte–macrophage colony – stimulating factor (GM–CSF) (d) EPOGEN (EPO) (e) None of the above

Description : What drug is used to prevent embolism in the lung and during myocardial infarction? (a) Alteplase (b) Human growth hormone (c) Granulocyte–macrophage colony – stimulating factor (GM–CSF) (d) EPOGEN (EPO) (e) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following drugs is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility ? (a) Cyclandelate (b) Theophyline (c) Pentoxiphyline (d) Nicotinic acid

Description : Which of the following drugs is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility ? (a) Cyclandelate (b) Theophyline (c) Pentoxiphyline (d) Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : Ans: C