Description : Clinical uses of Vitamin D do not include (a) Chronic renal failure (b) Hyperparathyroidism (c) Intestinal osteodystrophy (d) Nutritional rickets (e) Osteoporosis
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Characteristics of Vitamin D and its metabolites include which one of the following? (a) Act to decrease serum levels of calcium (b) Activation of their Vitamin D receptors increases cellular CAMP ... Vitamin D increase renal excretion of calcium (e) Vitamin D deficiency results in Pager's disease
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Serum inorganic phosphorous rises in all the following conditions except (A) Hypoparathyroidism (B) Hypervitaminosis D (C) Chronic renal failure (D) After a carbohydrate-rich meal MINERAL METABOLISM 197
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : The product of serum calcium concentration (mg/dl) and serum inorganic phosphorous concentration (mg/dl) is decreased in (A) Rickets (B) Hypoparathyroidism (C) Hyperparathyroidism (D) Renal failure
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in maximal exercise, can produce all of the following responses except (a) Bronchial relaxation (b) Decreases intestinal motility (c) Increased renal blood flow (d) Mydriasis (e) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)
Description : Serum inorganic phosphorous decreases in all the following conditions except (A) Hyperparathyroidism (B) Intestinal malabsorption (C) Osteomalacia (D) Chronic renal failure
Description : Which of the following has been shown to prolong life in patient with chronic congestive failure but has a negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility? (a) Carvedilol (b) Digitoxin (c) Digoxin (d) Dobutamine (e) Enalapril
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can ... Increased atrial contractility (c) Increased PR interval on the ECG (d) Headaches (e) Tachycardia
Description : Your patient is to receive a selective ß2 stimulant drug ß2 selective stimulant are often effective in (a) Angina due to coronary insufficiency (b) Asthma (c) Chronic heart failure (d) Delayed or insufficiently strong labor (e) All of the above
Description : Which one of the following drugs, when used chronically, is associated with the development of bone pain and mineralization defects such as osteomalacia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Dihydrotachysterol (c) Ergocalciferol (d) Etidronate (e) Norgestrel
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : The following conditions give rise to red blood cells with increased mean cell volume: a. anaemia of chronic disease. b. pernicious anaemia. c. anaemia due to renal failure. d. haemolytic anaemi
Last Answer : pernicious anaemia.
Description : Atropine does not exert relaxant/ antispasmodic effect on the following muscle (a) Intestinal (b) Ureteric (c) Bronchial (d) Layngeal
Description : Low doses of adrenaline dilate the following vascular bed (a) Cutaneous (b) Mucosal (c) Renal (d) Skeletal muscle
Description : Propanolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with (a) Chronic neurotic disorer (b) Schizopherenia (c) Short-term stressful situation (d) Endogenous depression
Description : Altering the amino acid profile in total parenteral nutrition solutions can be of benefit in certain conditions. Which of the following conditions are associated with a benefit by supplementation with the ... c. Short gut syndrome and glutamine d. Chronic renal failure and essential amino acids
Last Answer : Answer: a, c In a number of conditions, altering the amino acid profile of the total parenteral nutrition solution can be of benefit. TPN with amino acids of high biologic value ... Glutamine-enriched TPN partially attenuates villous atrophy and may be useful in treatment of short gut syndrome
Description : Primary hyperparathyroidism may occur in association with the following conditions 1) Chronic renal failure 2) Vitamin D deficiency 3) Gastrinoma 4) Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome 5) Sjogren's syndrome
Last Answer : Answers-3 The association of primary hyperparathyroidism and a gastrinoma would suggest a diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1. CRF causes secondary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism, with vit D deficiency causing secondary hyperparathyroidism. Ther is no association with Sjogren's.
Description : Hyponatraemia occurs in the following condition: (A) Addison’s disease (B) Chronic renal failure (C) Severe diarrhoea (D) All of these
Description : Radiopaque lesions are seen in: A. Multiple myeloma B. Paget’s disease C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Chronic renal failure
Last Answer : B. Paget’s disease
Description : Accepted therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs include all of the following except (a) Hypertension (b) Motion sickness (c) Parkinson’s disease (d) Postoperative bladder spasm (e) Traveler’s diarrhea
Description : he current therapeutic indication of acetazolamide is: A. Congestive heart failure B. Renal insufficiency C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Glaucoma
Last Answer : D. Glaucoma
Description : Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the ... have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and gallbladder necrosis.
Last Answer : Answer: E DISCUSSION: Gallstones have been found to be very prevalent in patients with type II (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, perhaps related to the dyslipoproteinemia in ... added mortality associated with it. There is no causal relationship between diabetes and pancreatic cancer
Description : The term used to describe total urine output of less than 400 mL in 24 hours is a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure. b) anuria. Anuria is used to ... Nocturia refers to awakening at night to urinate. d) dysuria. Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination.
Last Answer : a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.
Description : A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine
Last Answer : A. Epoetin
Description : Recombinant human erythropoietin is indicated for: A. Megaloblastic anaemia B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Anaemia in patients of thalassemia D. Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients
Last Answer : D. Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients
Description : Drugs that block the a receptor on effector cells at adrenergic nerve endings (a) Antagonize the effects of isoproterenol on the heart rate (b) Antagonize some of the effects of epinephrine on ... the effects of epinephrine on adenylyl cyclase (d) Cause mydriasis (e) Decreases blood glucose levels
Description : A patient is admitted to the emergency room with orthostatic hypotension and evidence of marked GI bleeding. Which of the following most accurately describes the probable autonomic response to this ... constricted pupils, increased bowel sounds (e) Rapid heart rate, constricted pupils, warm skin
Description : Typical results of beta-receptor activation include which one of the following? (a) Hypoglycemia (b) Lipolysis (c) Glycogen synthesis (d) Decreased skeletal muscle tremor (e) Decreased rennin secretion
Description : A 70-year-old man has severe urinary hesitancy associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has tried alpha blockers with little relief. His physician recommends a drug that blocks 5a - reductase in ... prescription for (a) Atropine (b) Clonidine (c) Hydralazine (d) Neostigmine (e) Propranolol
Description : Cromolyn has as its major action (a) Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes (b) Block of mediator release from mast cells (c) Block of phosphodiesterase in mast cells and basophils (d) Smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchi (e) Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals
Description : A drug that is useful in glaucoma and high-altitude sickness is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Demeclocycline (d) Desmopressin (e) Ethacrynic acid
Description : A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone
Description : Which of the following therapies would be most useful in the management of severe hypercalcemia? (a) Amiloride plus saline infusion (b) Furosemide plus saline infusion (c) Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion (d) Mannitol plus saline infusion (e) Spironolactone plus saline infusion
Description : Which of the following diuretics would be most useful in a patient with cerebral edema? (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Ethacrynic acid (d) Furosemide (e) Mannitol
Description : Which of the following has the longest half-life of all antiarrhythmic drugs? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Flecainide
Description : Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine
Description : Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following? (a) Cinchonism (b) Constipation (c) Lupus erythematosus (d) Increase in digoxin clearance (e) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism
Description : A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Flecainide (d) Propranolol (e) Quinidine
Description : When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, Lidocaine typically (a) Increases action potential duration (b) Increases contractility (c) Increses PR interval (d) Reduces abnormal automaticity (e) Reduces resting potential
Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice in treating suicidal overdose of digitoxin ? (a) Digoxin antibodies (b) Lidocaine (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Quinidine
Description : Which of the following situations constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity ? (a) Starting administration of captopril (b) Starting administration of quinidine (c) Hyperkalemia (d) Hypermagnesemia (e) Hypocalcemia
Description : In a patient given a cardiac glycoside, important effects of the drug on the heart include which of the following? (a) Decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity (b) Decreased ejection time (c) Increased ectopic automaticity (d) Increased ectopic automaticity (e) All of the above
Description : The biochemical mechanism of action of digitalis is associated with (a) A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum (b) An increase in ATP synthesis (c) A modification of the actin molecule (d) An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels (e) A block of sodium/calcium exchange
Description : Which of the following is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors but may provoke anginal attacks? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of angina by inhalation has a very rapid onset and a brief duration of effect ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : Which of the following is approved for the treatment of hemorrhagic stroke ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide moninitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : The major common determinant of myocardial oxygen consumption is (a) Blood volume (b) Cardiac output (c) Diastolic blood pressure (d) Heart rate (e) Myocardial fiber tension
Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate
Description : Nitroglycerin, either directly or through reflexes, results in which one of the following effects (a) Decreased heart rate (b) Decreased venous capacitance (c) Increased afterload (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased diastolic intramyocardial fiber tension
Description : Reserprine, an alkaloid derived from the root of Rauwolfia serpentina (a) Can be used to control hyperglycemia (b) Can cause severe depression of mood (c) Can decrease gastrointestinal secretion and motility (d) Has no cardiac effects (e) A spare receptor agonist