Description : Which of the following therapies would be most useful in the management of severe hypercalcemia? (a) Amiloride plus saline infusion (b) Furosemide plus saline infusion (c) Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion (d) Mannitol plus saline infusion (e) Spironolactone plus saline infusion
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Which of the following diuretics would be most useful in a patient with cerebral edema? (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Ethacrynic acid (d) Furosemide (e) Mannitol
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Which of the following statements regarding hypercalcemia are true? A. The symptoms of hypercalcemia may mimic some symptoms of hyperglycemia. B. Metastatic breast cancer is an unusual cause of ... fluid volume deficit. E. Urinary calcium excretion may be increased by vigorous volume repletion.
Last Answer : Answer: ADE DISCUSSION: Markedly elevated serum calcium levels produce polydipsia, polyuria, and thirst. Vigorous volume repletion and saline diuresis correct the extracellular fluid volume ... , from bony metastasis. The calcitonin effect on calcium is diminished with repeat administrations
Description : Which one of the following drugs, when used chronically, is associated with the development of bone pain and mineralization defects such as osteomalacia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Dihydrotachysterol (c) Ergocalciferol (d) Etidronate (e) Norgestrel
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Which of the following conditions is an indication for the use of calcitonin? (a) Chronic renal failure (b) Hypoparathyroidism (c) Intestinal osteodystrophy (d) Pager’s disease (e) Rickets
Description : Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine? (a) Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium (b) Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine (c) Increased skeleton muscle ... by neostigmine (d) Tachycardia caused by exercise (e) Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine
Description : Noradrenaline is administered by (a) Subcutaneous injection (b) Intramuscular injection (c) Slow intravenous infusion (d) All of the above routes
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels
Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels
Description : Characteristics of Vitamin D and its metabolites include which one of the following? (a) Act to decrease serum levels of calcium (b) Activation of their Vitamin D receptors increases cellular CAMP ... Vitamin D increase renal excretion of calcium (e) Vitamin D deficiency results in Pager's disease
Description : A drug that is useful in glaucoma and high-altitude sickness is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Demeclocycline (d) Desmopressin (e) Ethacrynic acid
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Propranolol is useful in all of the following except (a) Angina (b) Familial tremor (c) Hypertension (d) Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic cardiomyopathy (e) Partial atrioverntricular heart block
Description : The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation
Last Answer : B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic
Description : Thiazide diuretics inhibit (A) Carbonic anhydrase (B) Aldosterone secretion (C) ADH secretion (D) Sodium reabsorption in distal tubules
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.
Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.
Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia
Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency
Description : The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts
Last Answer : C. Cortical diluting segment
Description : Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C ... in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone
Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K
Description : Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis
Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis
Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate
Last Answer : B. Calcium
Description : Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives
Last Answer : C. Elderly obese hypertensives
Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost
Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action
Description : Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril
Last Answer : B. Nifedipine
Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients
Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response
Description : Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics
Last Answer : c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine
Description : A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone
Description : A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough. He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different antihypertensive medication. The most likely cause of his cough is (a) Enalapril (b) Losartan (c) Minoxidil (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Description : A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked ... has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol
Description : Several children at a summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxins. The effects of botulinum toxin are likely to include (a) Bronchospasm (b) Cycloplegia (c) Diarrhea (d) Skeletal muscle spasms (e) Hyperventilation
Description : Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated ... may be indicated for situations where complete clot evacuation cannot be accomplished surgically
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, e The most popular method for intraarterial thrombolytic therapy for arterial occlusion involves passing a guidewire through the thrombus with arteriographic guidance and ... acute arterial occlusion) or when distal vasculative is occluded and precludes appropriate inflow patency
Description : Drugs that block the a receptor on effector cells at adrenergic nerve endings (a) Antagonize the effects of isoproterenol on the heart rate (b) Antagonize some of the effects of epinephrine on ... the effects of epinephrine on adenylyl cyclase (d) Cause mydriasis (e) Decreases blood glucose levels
Description : A patient is admitted to the emergency room with orthostatic hypotension and evidence of marked GI bleeding. Which of the following most accurately describes the probable autonomic response to this ... constricted pupils, increased bowel sounds (e) Rapid heart rate, constricted pupils, warm skin
Description : Typical results of beta-receptor activation include which one of the following? (a) Hypoglycemia (b) Lipolysis (c) Glycogen synthesis (d) Decreased skeletal muscle tremor (e) Decreased rennin secretion
Description : A 70-year-old man has severe urinary hesitancy associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has tried alpha blockers with little relief. His physician recommends a drug that blocks 5a - reductase in ... prescription for (a) Atropine (b) Clonidine (c) Hydralazine (d) Neostigmine (e) Propranolol
Description : Clinical uses of Vitamin D do not include (a) Chronic renal failure (b) Hyperparathyroidism (c) Intestinal osteodystrophy (d) Nutritional rickets (e) Osteoporosis
Description : Cromolyn has as its major action (a) Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes (b) Block of mediator release from mast cells (c) Block of phosphodiesterase in mast cells and basophils (d) Smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchi (e) Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals
Description : Which of the following has the longest half-life of all antiarrhythmic drugs? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Flecainide
Description : Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine
Description : Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following? (a) Cinchonism (b) Constipation (c) Lupus erythematosus (d) Increase in digoxin clearance (e) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism
Description : A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Flecainide (d) Propranolol (e) Quinidine
Description : When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, Lidocaine typically (a) Increases action potential duration (b) Increases contractility (c) Increses PR interval (d) Reduces abnormal automaticity (e) Reduces resting potential
Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice in treating suicidal overdose of digitoxin ? (a) Digoxin antibodies (b) Lidocaine (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Quinidine
Description : Which of the following has been shown to prolong life in patient with chronic congestive failure but has a negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility? (a) Carvedilol (b) Digitoxin (c) Digoxin (d) Dobutamine (e) Enalapril
Description : Which of the following situations constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity ? (a) Starting administration of captopril (b) Starting administration of quinidine (c) Hyperkalemia (d) Hypermagnesemia (e) Hypocalcemia
Description : In a patient given a cardiac glycoside, important effects of the drug on the heart include which of the following? (a) Decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity (b) Decreased ejection time (c) Increased ectopic automaticity (d) Increased ectopic automaticity (e) All of the above
Description : A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can ... Increased atrial contractility (c) Increased PR interval on the ECG (d) Headaches (e) Tachycardia
Description : The biochemical mechanism of action of digitalis is associated with (a) A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum (b) An increase in ATP synthesis (c) A modification of the actin molecule (d) An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels (e) A block of sodium/calcium exchange
Description : Which of the following is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors but may provoke anginal attacks? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of angina by inhalation has a very rapid onset and a brief duration of effect ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : Which of the following is approved for the treatment of hemorrhagic stroke ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide moninitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine