Description : Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Flecainide (d) Propranolol (e) Quinidine
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide
Description : Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide
Last Answer : C. Esmolo
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class III antiarrhythmic agent that is effective in the acute management of atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter of recent onset ? (a) Bretylium (b) Lbutilide (c) Metoprolol (d) Disopyramide
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, Lidocaine typically (a) Increases action potential duration (b) Increases contractility (c) Increses PR interval (d) Reduces abnormal automaticity (e) Reduces resting potential
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol
Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine
Last Answer : A. Disopyramide
Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Amiodarone
Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug accumulates in the body for a very long time: A. Procainamide B. Mexiletine C. Bretylium D. Amiodarone
Last Answer : D. Amiodarone
Description : Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone
Last Answer : A. Lignocaine
Description : Why should care be taken when prescribing warfarin and amiodarone in combination? A. Amiodarone and warfarin both have an anticoagulant effect. B. Amiodarone may reverse the anticoagulant ... anticoagulant effect of warfarin. D. Warfarin may reverse the antiarrhythmic effect of amiodarone.
Last Answer : C. Amiodarone may increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
Description : Drugs that block the a receptor on effector cells at adrenergic nerve endings (a) Antagonize the effects of isoproterenol on the heart rate (b) Antagonize some of the effects of epinephrine on ... the effects of epinephrine on adenylyl cyclase (d) Cause mydriasis (e) Decreases blood glucose levels
Description : Which one of the following drugs, when used chronically, is associated with the development of bone pain and mineralization defects such as osteomalacia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Dihydrotachysterol (c) Ergocalciferol (d) Etidronate (e) Norgestrel
Description : Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of angina by inhalation has a very rapid onset and a brief duration of effect ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : Postural hypotension is a common adverse effect of which one of the following types of drugs ? (a) ACE inhibitors (b) Alpha-receptor blockers (c) Arteriolar dilators (d) ß1 – selective receptor blockers (e) Nonselective ß - blockers
Description : Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice in anaphylaxis associated with bronchospasm and hypotension ? (a) Cortisone (b) Epinephrine (c) Isoproterenol (d) Norepinephrine (e) Phenylephrine
Description : Accepted therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs include all of the following except (a) Hypertension (b) Motion sickness (c) Parkinson’s disease (d) Postoperative bladder spasm (e) Traveler’s diarrhea
Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which of the following drugs can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP (a) Noradrenaline (b) Isoprenaline (c) Mephentermine (d) Isoxsuprine
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery (a) Glycopyrrolate (b) Pipenzolate methyl bromide (c) Isopropamide (d) Dicyclomine
Description : Which of the following has been shown to prolong life in patient with chronic congestive failure but has a negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility? (a) Carvedilol (b) Digitoxin (c) Digoxin (d) Dobutamine (e) Enalapril
Description : A patient is admitted to the emergency room with orthostatic hypotension and evidence of marked GI bleeding. Which of the following most accurately describes the probable autonomic response to this ... constricted pupils, increased bowel sounds (e) Rapid heart rate, constricted pupils, warm skin
Description : Typical results of beta-receptor activation include which one of the following? (a) Hypoglycemia (b) Lipolysis (c) Glycogen synthesis (d) Decreased skeletal muscle tremor (e) Decreased rennin secretion
Description : A 70-year-old man has severe urinary hesitancy associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has tried alpha blockers with little relief. His physician recommends a drug that blocks 5a - reductase in ... prescription for (a) Atropine (b) Clonidine (c) Hydralazine (d) Neostigmine (e) Propranolol
Description : Clinical uses of Vitamin D do not include (a) Chronic renal failure (b) Hyperparathyroidism (c) Intestinal osteodystrophy (d) Nutritional rickets (e) Osteoporosis
Description : Which of the following conditions is an indication for the use of calcitonin? (a) Chronic renal failure (b) Hypoparathyroidism (c) Intestinal osteodystrophy (d) Pager’s disease (e) Rickets
Description : Characteristics of Vitamin D and its metabolites include which one of the following? (a) Act to decrease serum levels of calcium (b) Activation of their Vitamin D receptors increases cellular CAMP ... Vitamin D increase renal excretion of calcium (e) Vitamin D deficiency results in Pager's disease
Description : Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics
Description : Cromolyn has as its major action (a) Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes (b) Block of mediator release from mast cells (c) Block of phosphodiesterase in mast cells and basophils (d) Smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchi (e) Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals
Description : A drug that is useful in glaucoma and high-altitude sickness is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Demeclocycline (d) Desmopressin (e) Ethacrynic acid
Description : A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone
Description : Which of the following therapies would be most useful in the management of severe hypercalcemia? (a) Amiloride plus saline infusion (b) Furosemide plus saline infusion (c) Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion (d) Mannitol plus saline infusion (e) Spironolactone plus saline infusion
Description : Which of the following diuretics would be most useful in a patient with cerebral edema? (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Ethacrynic acid (d) Furosemide (e) Mannitol
Description : Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following? (a) Cinchonism (b) Constipation (c) Lupus erythematosus (d) Increase in digoxin clearance (e) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism
Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice in treating suicidal overdose of digitoxin ? (a) Digoxin antibodies (b) Lidocaine (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Quinidine
Description : Which of the following situations constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity ? (a) Starting administration of captopril (b) Starting administration of quinidine (c) Hyperkalemia (d) Hypermagnesemia (e) Hypocalcemia
Description : In a patient given a cardiac glycoside, important effects of the drug on the heart include which of the following? (a) Decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity (b) Decreased ejection time (c) Increased ectopic automaticity (d) Increased ectopic automaticity (e) All of the above
Description : A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can ... Increased atrial contractility (c) Increased PR interval on the ECG (d) Headaches (e) Tachycardia
Description : The biochemical mechanism of action of digitalis is associated with (a) A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum (b) An increase in ATP synthesis (c) A modification of the actin molecule (d) An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels (e) A block of sodium/calcium exchange
Description : Which of the following is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors but may provoke anginal attacks? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : Which of the following is approved for the treatment of hemorrhagic stroke ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide moninitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : The major common determinant of myocardial oxygen consumption is (a) Blood volume (b) Cardiac output (c) Diastolic blood pressure (d) Heart rate (e) Myocardial fiber tension
Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate
Description : Nitroglycerin, either directly or through reflexes, results in which one of the following effects (a) Decreased heart rate (b) Decreased venous capacitance (c) Increased afterload (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased diastolic intramyocardial fiber tension
Description : Reserprine, an alkaloid derived from the root of Rauwolfia serpentina (a) Can be used to control hyperglycemia (b) Can cause severe depression of mood (c) Can decrease gastrointestinal secretion and motility (d) Has no cardiac effects (e) A spare receptor agonist
Description : A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough. He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different antihypertensive medication. The most likely cause of his cough is (a) Enalapril (b) Losartan (c) Minoxidil (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Description : Which one of the following is characteristic of captopril and enalapril ? (a) Competitively blocks angiotensim II at its receptor (b) Decreases angiotensin II concentration in the blood (c) Decreases ... and decreases potassium in the blood (e) Decreases sodium and increases potassium in the urine
Description : A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked ... has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol
Description : Propranolol is useful in all of the following except (a) Angina (b) Familial tremor (c) Hypertension (d) Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic cardiomyopathy (e) Partial atrioverntricular heart block
Description : Which of the following effects of epinephrine would be blocked by phentolamine but not by metoprolol ? (a) Cardiac stimulation (b) Contractionof radial smooth muscle in the iris (c) Increase of camp in fat (d) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle (e) Relaxation of the uterus