Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both systolic and diastolic BP by less than 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both systolic and diastolic BP by less than 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic
by

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Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both systolic and diastolic BP by less than 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Description : Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both ... 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Last Answer : D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Description : According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of ... mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Last Answer : a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).

Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

Description : Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) ... , 70 Pressure of 120 systolic and 70 diastolic falls within the normal range for an adult.

Last Answer : a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

An adult human with average health has systolic and diastolic pressures as (a) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (b) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (c) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (d) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg.

Description : An adult human with average health has systolic and diastolic pressures as (a) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (b) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (c) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (d) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg.

Last Answer : (a) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg

Vasodilators are used to treat: A. Acute heart failure attending myocardial infarction B. Chronic heart failure due to diastolic dysfunction C. Chronic heart failure due to both systolic as well as diastolic dysfunction D. All of the above

Description : Vasodilators are used to treat: A. Acute heart failure attending myocardial infarction B. Chronic heart failure due to diastolic dysfunction C. Chronic heart failure due to both systolic as well as diastolic dysfunction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

Which of the following ranges identifies the amount of pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff that is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration? a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the pressure is maintained at less than 25 cm water pressure to prevent injury and at more than 20 cm water pressure to prevent aspiration. b) 10-15 mm Hg water pressure. A measure of 10–15 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated. c) 30-35 mm Hg water pressure. A measure of 30–35 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is overinflated. d) 0-5 mm Hg water pressure A measure of 0-5 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated.

Description : Which of the following ranges identifies the amount of pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff that is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration? a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the ... pressure A measure of 0-5 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated.

Last Answer : a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the pressure is maintained at less than 25 cm water pressure to prevent injury and at more than 20 cm water pressure to prevent aspiration.

The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally blocks α1 and α2 adrenoceptors C. It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Description : The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally ... It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade

The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally blocks α1 and α2 adrenoceptors C. It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Description : The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally ... It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade

The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Description : The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Last Answer : D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

True statements about cerebral blood flow: a. it is controlled mainly by the autonomic nervous system b. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure is raised c. it is constant in the blood pressure range of 50 to 150 mm Hg systolic d. hypocapnia increases the cerebral blood flow

Description : True statements about cerebral blood flow: a. it is controlled mainly by the autonomic nervous system b. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure is raised c. it is constant in the blood pressure range of 50 to 150 mm Hg systolic d. hypocapnia increases the cerebral blood flow

Last Answer : it is constant in the blood pressure range of 50 to 150 mm Hg systolic

Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits. b) Refractory The refractory or irreversible stage of shock represents the point at which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Description : Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of ... which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Last Answer : a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits.

Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine

Description : Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : B. Enalapril

A suspected case of poisoning has been brought to the casualty with weakness, fainting, involuntary passage of urine and stools, profuse sweating, salivation, watering from nose and eyes. His pulse is 120/min, low volume, BP 90/60 mm Hg, respiration shallow, pupil constricted, muscles flabby with occasional fasciculations. Which is the most likely type of poisoning: A. Belladonna B. Barbiturate C. Anticholinesterase D. Dicophane (DDT

Description : A suspected case of poisoning has been brought to the casualty with weakness, fainting, involuntary passage of urine and stools, profuse sweating, salivation, watering from nose and eyes. His pulse ... likely type of poisoning: A. Belladonna B. Barbiturate C. Anticholinesterase D. Dicophane (DDT

Last Answer : C. Anticholinesterase

A suspected case of poisoning has been brought to the casualty with weakness, fainting, involuntary passage of urine and stools, profuse sweating, salivation, watering from nose and eyes. His pulse is 120/min, low volume, BP 90/60 mm Hg, respiration shallow, pupil constricted, muscles flabby with occasional fasciculations. Which is the most likely type of poisoning: A. Belladonna B. Barbiturate C. Anticholinesterase D. Dicophane (DDT)

Description : A suspected case of poisoning has been brought to the casualty with weakness, fainting, involuntary passage of urine and stools, profuse sweating, salivation, watering from nose and eyes. His pulse ... likely type of poisoning: A. Belladonna B. Barbiturate C. Anticholinesterase D. Dicophane (DDT)

Last Answer : C. Anticholinesterase

Systolic pressure is higher than diastolic pressure due to `:-`

Description : Systolic pressure is higher than diastolic pressure due to `:-`

Last Answer : Systolic pressure is higher than diastolic pressure due to `:-` A. Volume of blood in the heart ... D. Blood is forced into arteries during systole.

A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : C. Atenolol

Explain the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure. -Biology

Description : Explain the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure. -Biology

Last Answer : answer:

What is systolic and diastolic pressure in a healthy man? -Do You Know?

Description : What is systolic and diastolic pressure in a healthy man? -Do You Know?

Last Answer : answer:

Assertion `:` Systolic pressure is higher then diastolic pressure. Reason `:` Arteries contract during systole of heart.

Description : Assertion `:` Systolic pressure is higher then diastolic pressure. Reason `:` Arteries contract during systole of heart.

Last Answer : Assertion `:` Systolic pressure is higher then diastolic pressure. Reason `:` Arteries contract during ... D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

Does the Garmin Forerunner with Heart rate monitor give your systolic and diastolic readings?

Description : Does the Garmin Forerunner with Heart rate monitor give your systolic and diastolic readings?

Last Answer : Unfortunately no, it only records your heart rate, time, distance, speed, path traveled and altitude

Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below? (a) Complex QRS - one complete pulse (b) Peak T - initiation of total cardiac contraction (c) Peak P and peak R together - systolic and diastolic blood pressures (d) Peak P- initiation of left atrial contraction only

Description : Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below? (a) Complex QRS - one complete pulse (b) Peak T - initiation of total cardiac ... R together - systolic and diastolic blood pressures (d) Peak P- initiation of left atrial contraction only

Last Answer : (a) Complex QRS - one complete pulse

What is systolic and diastolic pressure in a healthy man?

Description : What is systolic and diastolic pressure in a healthy man?

Last Answer : 120 mm and 80 mm

At the end of the ventricular contraction, the maximum arterial pressure is attained, and blood flow is most rapid. This is correctly termed the: a) arterial maximum b) gluteus maximum c) diastolic pressure d) systolic pressure

Description : At the end of the ventricular contraction, the maximum arterial pressure is attained, and blood flow is most rapid. This is correctly termed the: a) arterial maximum b) gluteus maximum c) diastolic pressure d) systolic pressure

Last Answer : ANSWER: D -- SYSTOLIC PRESSURE

Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors

Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Description : Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Last Answer : C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection

A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Methyldopa

Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Description : Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Last Answer : C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins

The following are true about ocular circulation: a. only 4% of the total blood supply to the eye goes to the retina b. the choroidal blood flow in normal people is ten times that of the grey mater of the brain c. autoregulation occurs in both retinal and choroidal circulation d. a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow

Description : The following are true about ocular circulation: a. only 4% of the total blood supply to the eye goes to the retina b. the choroidal blood flow in normal people is ten times that of the grey mater ... and choroidal circulation d. a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow

Last Answer : a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow

The following is a selective α2 adrenoceptor antagonist: A. Prazosin B. Phentolamine C. Yohimbine D. Clonidine

Description : The following is a selective α2 adrenoceptor antagonist: A. Prazosin B. Phentolamine C. Yohimbine D. Clonidine

Last Answer : C. Yohimbine

The following is a selective α 2 adrenoceptor antagonist: A. Prazosin B. Phentolamine C. Yohimbine D. Clonidine

Description : The following is a selective α 2 adrenoceptor antagonist: A. Prazosin B. Phentolamine C. Yohimbine D. Clonidine

Last Answer : C. Yohimbine

Actions of adenosine include the following except: A. Depression of A-V node B. Coronary vasodilatation C. Bronchodilatation D. Fall in BP

Description : Actions of adenosine include the following except: A. Depression of A-V node B. Coronary vasodilatation C. Bronchodilatation D. Fall in BP

Last Answer : C. Bronchodilatation

Select the nonapeptide which can be generated from plasma globulin by snake venom enzymes, causes fall in BP and intense pain when applied to blister base: A. Kallidin B. Bradykinin C. Angiotensin II D. Angiotensin III

Description : Select the nonapeptide which can be generated from plasma globulin by snake venom enzymes, causes fall in BP and intense pain when applied to blister base: A. Kallidin B. Bradykinin C. Angiotensin II D. Angiotensin III

Last Answer : B. Bradykinin

Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals

Description : Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : B. Fall in BP in the long term

Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm

The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall: A. Cocaine B. Dibucaine C. Lignocaine D. Procaine

Description : The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall: A. Cocaine B. Dibucaine C. Lignocaine D. Procaine

Last Answer : A. Cocaine

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Shortacting nifedipine formulation is not recommended now for treatment of hypertension because: A. It tends to increase heart rate and cardiac work B. It invokes pronounced reflex sympathetic discharges C. It can impair haemodynamics in patients with diastolic dysfunction D. All of the above

Description : Shortacting nifedipine formulation is not recommended now for treatment of hypertension because: A. It tends to increase heart rate and cardiac work B. It invokes pronounced reflex sympathetic discharges C. It can impair haemodynamics in patients with diastolic dysfunction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure? (a) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment. (b) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure. (c) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active. (d) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney.

Description : Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure? (a) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment. (b) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure. (c) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active. (d) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney.

Last Answer : d) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney.

Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ACE inhibitors ± digitalis/ diuretic C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy

The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Description : The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Last Answer : A. Calcium channel blocker

Oncotic pressure of plasma is about (A) 10 mm of Hg (B) 15 mm of Hg (C) 25 mm of Hg (D) 50 mm of Hg

Description : Oncotic pressure of plasma is about (A) 10 mm of Hg (B) 15 mm of Hg (C) 25 mm of Hg (D) 50 mm of Hg

Last Answer : Answer : C

The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone

CAAT box is present in (A) Prokaryotic promoters 10 bp upstream of transcription start site (B) Prokaryotic promoters 35 bp upstream of transcription start site (C) Eukaryotic promoters 25 bp upstream of transcription start site (D) Eukaryotic promoters 70–80 bp upstream of transcription start site

Description : CAAT box is present in (A) Prokaryotic promoters 10 bp upstream of transcription start site (B) Prokaryotic promoters 35 bp upstream of transcription start site (C) Eukaryotic promoters 25 bp upstream of transcription start site (D) Eukaryotic promoters 70–80 bp upstream of transcription start site

Last Answer : Answer : D

A mixture of 10% C6H6 vapour in air at 25°C and 750 mm Hg has a dew point of 20°C. Its dew point at 30°C and 700 mm Hg will be around __________ °C. (A) 21.7 (B) 20 (C) 27.3 (D) 18.7

Description : A mixture of 10% C6H6 vapour in air at 25°C and 750 mm Hg has a dew point of 20°C. Its dew point at 30°C and 700 mm Hg will be around __________ °C. (A) 21.7 (B) 20 (C) 27.3 (D) 18.7

Last Answer : (D) 18.7

The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is (a) 50 mm Hg (b) 75 mm Hg (c) 20 mm Hg (d) 30 mm Hg.

Description : The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is (a) 50 mm Hg (b) 75 mm Hg (c) 20 mm Hg (d) 30 mm Hg.

Last Answer : c) 20 mm Hg