Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that:
A. It is a depolarizing blocker
B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine
C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection
D. It causes marked histamine release
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection
by

Related questions

Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors

Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis

Description : Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis

Last Answer : C. Histamine release

The neuromuscular blocker that does not need reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the operation is: A. d-Tubocurarine B. Doxacurium C. Pipecuronium D. Mivacurium

Description : The neuromuscular blocker that does not need reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the operation is: A. d-Tubocurarine B. Doxacurium C. Pipecuronium D. Mivacurium

Last Answer : D. Mivacurium

ostoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker: A. d-tubocurarine B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium

Description : ostoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker: A. d-tubocurarine B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium

Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine

Select the skeletal muscle relaxant that is commonly used for endotracheal intubation despite causing histamine release, K+ efflux from muscles and cardiovascular changes: A. Pipecuroniun B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Cisatracurium

Description : Select the skeletal muscle relaxant that is commonly used for endotracheal intubation despite causing histamine release, K+ efflux from muscles and cardiovascular changes: A. Pipecuroniun B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Cisatracurium

Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine

The fall in blood pressure caused by d-tubocurarine is due to: A. Reduced venous return B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. All of the above

Description : The fall in blood pressure caused by d-tubocurarine is due to: A. Reduced venous return B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release

Description : Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release

Last Answer : B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine

Description : Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine

Last Answer : A. Cimetidine

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or blood pressure C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Description : Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or ... C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery

The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection

Description : The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection

Last Answer : A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine

The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Description : The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Last Answer : D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use

Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug (A) Atropine (B) Carvedilol (C) Neostigmine ( D ) d-Tubocurarine

Description : Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug (A) Atropine (B) Carvedilol (C) Neostigmine ( D ) d-Tubocurarine

Last Answer : ( D ) d-Tubocurarine

Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings: A. By depolarizing the axonal membrane B. By mobilizing Ca2+ C. By a nonexocytotic process D. Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

Description : Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings: A. By depolarizing the axonal membrane B. By mobilizing Ca2+ C. By a nonexocytotic process D. Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. By a nonexocytotic process

Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Description : Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Last Answer : C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins

Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Description : Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has additional α1 blocking property

Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Description : Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has additional α1 blocking property

The site of action of d-tubocurarine is: A. Spinal internuncial neurone B. Motor nerve ending C. Muscle end-plate D. Sodium channels in the muscle fibre

Description : The site of action of d-tubocurarine is: A. Spinal internuncial neurone B. Motor nerve ending C. Muscle end-plate D. Sodium channels in the muscle fibre

Last Answer : C. Muscle end-plate

Tachyphylaxis to many actions on repeated injection is a feature of the following autacoid: A. Histamine B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Bradykinin D. Prostaglandin E2

Description : Tachyphylaxis to many actions on repeated injection is a feature of the following autacoid: A. Histamine B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Bradykinin D. Prostaglandin E2

Last Answer : B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine

The following class of gastric antisecretory drug also reduce gastric motility and have primary effect on juice volume, with less marked effect on acid and pepsin content: A. Histamine H2 blockers B. Anticholinergics C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Prostaglandins

Description : The following class of gastric antisecretory drug also reduce gastric motility and have primary effect on juice volume, with less marked effect on acid and pepsin A. Histamine H2 blockers B. Anticholinergics C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Prostaglandins

Last Answer : B. Anticholinergics

Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid excretion C. It causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Description : Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid ... causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Description : Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Last Answer : B. It is longer acting

Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Description : Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Last Answer : B. It is longer acting

Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm

Poisons like cyanide inhibit Na+ efflux and K+ influx during cellular transport. This inhibitory effect is reversed by an injection of ATP. This demonstrates that (a) ATP is the carrier protein in the transport system (b) energy for Na+-K+ exchange pump comes from ATP (c) ATP is hydrolysed by ATPase to release energy (d) Na+-K+ exchange pump operates in the cell.

Description : Poisons like cyanide inhibit Na+ efflux and K+ influx during cellular transport. This inhibitory effect is reversed by an injection of ATP. This demonstrates that (a) ATP is the carrier protein in the ... is hydrolysed by ATPase to release energy (d) Na+-K+ exchange pump operates in the cell.

Last Answer : (b) energy for Na+-K+ exchange pump comes from ATP

The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Description : ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis

Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both systolic and diastolic BP by less than 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Description : Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both ... 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Last Answer : D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both systolic and diastolic BP by less than 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Description : Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both ... 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Last Answer : D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression

The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Last Answer : A. Histamine release

The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Last Answer : C. Morphine

The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Last Answer : C. Morphine

‘Red man syndrome’ has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of the following antibiotic: A. Vancomycin B. Clindamycin C. Cefoperazone D. Piperacillin

Description : ‘Red man syndrome’ has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of the following antibiotic: A. Vancomycin B. Clindamycin C. Cefoperazone D. Piperacillin

Last Answer : A. Vancomycin

Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action

Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action

Last Answer : C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension

At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination

Description : At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination

Last Answer : B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution

Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Description : Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol

Description : The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : A. Streptomycin

The most rapidly acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent which can be used as an alternative to succinylcholine for tracheal intubation is: A. Rocuronium B. Pancuronium C. Doxacurium D. Pipecuronium

Description : The most rapidly acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent which can be used as an alternative to succinylcholine for tracheal intubation is: A. Rocuronium B. Pancuronium C. Doxacurium D. Pipecuronium

Last Answer : A. Rocuronium

Which of the following drugs undergoes ‘Hofmann’ elimination: A. Succinylcholine B. Pancuronium C. Vecuronium

Description : Which of the following drugs undergoes ‘Hofmann’ elimination: A. Succinylcholine B. Pancuronium C. Vecuronium

Last Answer : D. Atracurium

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Last Answer : B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action

At the muscle end-plate, d-tubocurarine reduces the: A. Number of Na+ channels B. Duration for which the Na+ channels remain open C. Ion conductance of the open Na+ channel D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

Description : At the muscle end-plate, d-tubocurarine reduces the: A. Number of Na+ channels B. Duration for which the Na+ channels remain open C. Ion conductance of the open Na+ channel D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

Last Answer : D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening