The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall: A. Cocaine B. Dibucaine C. Lignocaine D. Procaine

The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of
tending to cause a fall:
A. Cocaine
B. Dibucaine
C. Lignocaine
D. Procaine
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Cocaine
by

Related questions

The following local anaesthetic is poorly water soluble, PABA derivative and primarily used for anorectal lesions, wounds and ulcers: A. Benzocaine B. Dibucaine C. Procaine D. Benoxinate

Description : The following local anaesthetic is poorly water soluble, PABA derivative and primarily used for anorectal lesions, wounds and ulcers: A. Benzocaine B. Dibucaine C. Procaine D. Benoxinate

Last Answer : A. Benzocaine

Which of the following statements is true for lignocaine: A. It is an ester-linked local anaesthetic B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine C. It has a shorter duration of action than procaine D. It is not a surface anaesthetic

Description : Which of the following statements is true for lignocaine: A. It is an ester-linked local anaesthetic B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine C. It has a shorter duration of action than procaine D. It is not a surface anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine

The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is: A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Ropivacaine

Description : The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is: A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Ropivacaine

Last Answer : C. Bupivacaine

Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic: A. Procaine B. Lignocaine C. Tetracaine D. Benoxinate

Description : Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic: A. Procaine B. Lignocaine C. Tetracaine D. Benoxinate

Last Answer : A. Procaine

Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological conditon (a) Cocaine (b) Dibucaine (c) Lidocaine (d) Procaine

Description : Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological conditon (a) Cocaine (b) Dibucaine (c) Lidocaine (d) Procaine

Last Answer : Ans: B

Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Description : Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Last Answer : C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins

Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm

The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Description : The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it ... erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood concentrations of the local anaesthetic are lower after epidural anaesthesia D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic

Description : The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : C. Posture of the patient

The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors

Description : The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors

Last Answer : D. All of the above factors

n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia

Description : n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia

Last Answer : A. Infiltration anaesthesia

Choose the local anaesthetic that is specifically used to produce corneal anaesthesia for tonometry: A. Tetracaine B. Oxethazaine C. Ropivacaine D. Benoxinate

Description : Choose the local anaesthetic that is specifically used to produce corneal anaesthesia for tonometry: A. Tetracaine B. Oxethazaine C. Ropivacaine D. Benoxinate

Last Answer : D. Benoxinate

Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Makes the injection less painful

Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia

Which sensation is blocked first by low concentrations of a local anaesthetic: A. Pain B. Temperature C. Touch D. Deep pressure

Description : Which sensation is blocked first by low concentrations of a local anaesthetic: A. Pain B. Temperature C. Touch D. Deep pressure

Last Answer : A. Pain

The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor only from the intraneuronal face of the Na+ channel C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form

Description : The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor ... the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form

Last Answer : C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state

The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic

Description : The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic

Last Answer : D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesth

Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Actions of adenosine include the following except: A. Depression of A-V node B. Coronary vasodilatation C. Bronchodilatation D. Fall in BP

Description : Actions of adenosine include the following except: A. Depression of A-V node B. Coronary vasodilatation C. Bronchodilatation D. Fall in BP

Last Answer : C. Bronchodilatation

Select the nonapeptide which can be generated from plasma globulin by snake venom enzymes, causes fall in BP and intense pain when applied to blister base: A. Kallidin B. Bradykinin C. Angiotensin II D. Angiotensin III

Description : Select the nonapeptide which can be generated from plasma globulin by snake venom enzymes, causes fall in BP and intense pain when applied to blister base: A. Kallidin B. Bradykinin C. Angiotensin II D. Angiotensin III

Last Answer : B. Bradykinin

Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals

Description : Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : B. Fall in BP in the long term

Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both systolic and diastolic BP by less than 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Description : Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both ... 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Last Answer : D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Description : The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is: A. Rise in BP B. Fall in BP C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Last Answer : D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both systolic and diastolic BP by less than 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Description : Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both ... 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Last Answer : D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic

Which local anesthetic should be used to treat symptoms of pain, itching, burning, and disconfort in patients with an established lidocaine allergy? (a) Tetracaine (b) Dibucaine (c) Pramoxine (d) Benzocaine

Description : Which local anesthetic should be used to treat symptoms of pain, itching, burning, and disconfort in patients with an established lidocaine allergy? (a) Tetracaine (b) Dibucaine (c) Pramoxine (d) Benzocaine

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin: A. Procaine penicillin B. Ampicillin C. Cloxacillin D. Carbenicillin

Description : Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin: A. Procaine penicillin B. Ampicillin C. Cloxacillin D. Carbenicillin

Last Answer : A. Procaine penicillin

The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is: A. Benzathine penicillin B. Sodium penicillin C. Potassium penicillin D. Procaine penicillin

Description : The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is: A. Benzathine penicillin B. Sodium penicillin C. Potassium penicillin D. Procaine penicillin

Last Answer : A. Benzathine penicillin

The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Last Answer : C. Morphine

The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Last Answer : C. Morphine

Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Description : Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Last Answer : C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection

Started within 4-6 hours of acute myocardial infarction, which of the following drug(s) can reduce the area of necrosis and the attendant mortality: A. Propranolol B. Glyceryl trinitrate C. Lignocaine D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Started within 4-6 hours of acute myocardial infarction, which of the following drug(s) can reduce the area of necrosis and the attendant mortality: A. Propranolol B. Glyceryl trinitrate C. Lignocaine D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

Description : Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

Last Answer : A. Propranolol

Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Description : Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Last Answer : C. Esmolo

The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Description : The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Last Answer : A. Mexiletine

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels

The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Description : The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Last Answer : A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci

The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone

Description : Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone

Last Answer : A. Lignocaine

A resting nerve is relatively resistant to blockade by lignocaine compared to one which is repeatedly stimulated because: A. Lignocaine penetrates resting nerve membrane poorly B. Lignocaine binds more avidly to the inactivated Na+ channel C. Nerve impulse promotes ionization of lignocaine D. Nodes of Ranvier are inaccessible in the resting state

Description : A resting nerve is relatively resistant to blockade by lignocaine compared to one which is repeatedly stimulated because: A. Lignocaine penetrates resting nerve membrane poorly B. Lignocaine binds ... promotes ionization of lignocaine D. Nodes of Ranvier are inaccessible in the resting state

Last Answer : B. Lignocaine binds more avidly to the inactivated Na+ chan

Sensitivity of a nerve fibre to blockade by lignocaine depends on: A. Whether the fibre is sensory or motor B. Whether the fibre is myelinated or nonmyelinated C. Internodal distances in the fibre D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Sensitivity of a nerve fibre to blockade by lignocaine depends on: A. Whether the fibre is sensory or motor B. Whether the fibre is myelinated or nonmyelinated C. Internodal distances in the fibre D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Which of the following is the LEAST to cause toxicity from local anaesthetic injection: A. Injecting in supine position B. Injecting in vascular area C. Injecting without a vasoconstrictor D. Intravenous injections

Description : Which of the following is the LEAST to cause toxicity from local anaesthetic injection: A. Injecting in supine position B. Injecting in vascular area C. Injecting without a vasoconstrictor D. Intravenous injections

Last Answer : A. Injecting in supine position

he antiepileptic drug which suppresses maximal electroshock as well as kindled seizures, raises pentylenetetrazol threshold and is effective in both generalized tonic-clonic as well as absence seizures is: A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Sodium valproate D. Ethosuximide

Description : he antiepileptic drug which suppresses maximal electroshock as well as kindled seizures, raises pentylenetetrazol threshold and is effective in both generalized tonic-clonic as well as absence seizures is: A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Sodium valproate D. Ethosuximide

Last Answer : C. Sodium valproate

The following antiepileptic drug raises pentylene tetrazol seizure threshold but does not modify maximal electroshock seizures: A. Ethosuximide B. Carbamazepine C. Primidone D. Phenobarbitone

Description : The following antiepileptic drug raises pentylene tetrazol seizure threshold but does not modify maximal electroshock seizures: A. Ethosuximide B. Carbamazepine C. Primidone D. Phenobarbitone

Last Answer : A. Ethosuximide

What is true of tamoxifen: A. It can induce endometrial proliferation in postmenopausal women B. It exerts antiestrogenic activity in bone C. It raises LDL-cholesterol levels D. It is ineffective in estrogen receptor-negative breast cancer

Description : What is true of tamoxifen: A. It can induce endometrial proliferation in postmenopausal women B. It exerts antiestrogenic activity in bone C. It raises LDL-cholesterol levels D. It is ineffective in estrogen receptor-negative breast cancer

Last Answer : A. It can induce endometrial proliferation in postmenopausal women

Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics

Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Last Answer : D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Last Answer : D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization