Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation
Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors
Description : The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection
Last Answer : A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine
Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia
Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia
Description : Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release
Last Answer : C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection
Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic
Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia
Description : 5-HT appears to play a role in the following except: A. Regulation of normal BP B. Regulation of intestinal peristalsis C. Haemostasis D. Causation of migraine
Last Answer : A. Regulation of normal BP
Description : Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both ... 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic
Last Answer : D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic
Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the ... serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function
Last Answer : Answer: a, c In monitoring the effect of heparin, an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 1.5 control or a thrombin clotting time (TCT) of 2 times control reflects adequate ... system. Therefore the dose of heparin need not be adjusted in cases of liver or renal dysfunction
Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution
Last Answer : D. Redistribution
Description : ‘Red man syndrome’ has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of the following antibiotic: A. Vancomycin B. Clindamycin C. Cefoperazone D. Piperacillin
Last Answer : A. Vancomycin
Description : A semiconscious patient of haemorrhagic cerebral stroke has been brought to the emergency. His blood pressure is 240/120 mmHg. Select the procedure to lower his blood pressure as ... injection of hydralazine C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside D. Intravenous injection of clonidin
Last Answer : C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprussid
Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion
Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion
Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil
Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect
Description : In an anaesthetized dog, repeated intravenous injection of ephedrine shows the phenomenon of: A. Anaphylaxis B. Tachyphylaxis C. Idiosyncrasy D. Drug resistance
Last Answer : B. Tachyphylaxis
Description : The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol
Last Answer : D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprosto
Description : Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide
Last Answer : C. Esmolo
Description : Use of morphine in preanaesthetic medication: A. Is routine except in the presence of contraindications B. Is restricted to patients being anaesthetised with ether C. Should be made only in combination with atropine D. Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperativel
Last Answer : D. Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperatively
Description : If a patient being anaesthetised with ether is unconscious, has regular respiration, blood pressure and heart rate are normal, corneal reflex is present and eyeballs are roving, the patient is in: A. Stage II B. Stage III plane 1 C. Stage III plane 2 D. Stage III plane 3
Last Answer : B. Stage III plane 1
Description : nduction of anaesthesia with propofol is often attended by: A. Transient apnoea B. Sharp short lasting fall in blood pressure C. Pain in the injected vein D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Description : Actions of adenosine include the following except: A. Depression of A-V node B. Coronary vasodilatation C. Bronchodilatation D. Fall in BP
Last Answer : C. Bronchodilatation
Description : Select the nonapeptide which can be generated from plasma globulin by snake venom enzymes, causes fall in BP and intense pain when applied to blister base: A. Kallidin B. Bradykinin C. Angiotensin II D. Angiotensin III
Last Answer : B. Bradykinin
Description : Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex
Last Answer : C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins
Description : Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals
Last Answer : B. Fall in BP in the long term
Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential
Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm
Description : The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall: A. Cocaine B. Dibucaine C. Lignocaine D. Procaine
Last Answer : A. Cocaine
Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy
Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property
Description : The following antidepressant increases rather than inhibits 5-HT uptake into neurones: A. Clomipramine B. Fluoxetine C. Tianeptine D. Trazodone
Last Answer : C. Tianeptine
Description : Adaptive changes in brain monoamine turnover due to blockade of noradrenaline/5-HT reuptake is credited with the following effect: A. Antipsychotic B. Antianxiety C. Antiparkinsonian D. Antidepressant
Last Answer : D. Antidepressant
Description : The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor: A. 5-HT1 B. 5-HT2 C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4
Last Answer : C. 5-HT3
Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response
Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response
Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability
Description : A patient of iron deficiency anaemia has been put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise in haemoglobin level of blood so that response is considered adequate: A. 0.05 – 0.1 g% per week B. 0.1 – 0.2 g% per week C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week D. More than 1.0 g% per week
Last Answer : C. 0.5 – 1.0 g% per week
Description : Noradrenaline is administered by (a) Subcutaneous injection (b) Intramuscular injection (c) Slow intravenous infusion (d) All of the above routes
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is : (A) 125% (B) 250 % (C) 12.5% (D) 1.25%
Last Answer : (C) 12.5%
Description : Which of the following is the LEAST to cause toxicity from local anaesthetic injection: A. Injecting in supine position B. Injecting in vascular area C. Injecting without a vasoconstrictor D. Intravenous injections
Last Answer : A. Injecting in supine position
Description : Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more when: A. Injection in supine position B. Injection into vascular area C. Injection without vasoconstrictors D. Intravenous injection
Last Answer : D. Intravenous injection
Description : Noradrenaline is administered by: A. Subcutaneous injection B. Intramuscular injection C. Slow intravenous infusion D. All of the above routes
Last Answer : C. Slow intravenous infusion
Description : A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution
Description : Select the route of administration which carries the highest risk of adversely affecting vital functions: A. Intra arterial injection B. Intrathecal injection C. Intravenous injection D. Intramuscular injection
Last Answer : C. Intravenous injection
Description : 17.5 Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar level
Last Answer : D. Rise in blood sugar level
Description : The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone
Description : Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar leve
Last Answer : C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level
Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class
Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately