Description : The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine
Last Answer : C. Cyproheptadine
Description : High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine
Last Answer : A. Diphenhydramine
Description : Fexofenadine differs from terfenadine in that: A. It undergoes high first pass metabolism in liver B. It is a prodrug C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels D. It has high affinity for central H1 receptors
Last Answer : C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels
Description : The smooth muscle stimulating action of 5-HT is most marked in the: A. Bronchi B. Intestines C. Ureter D. Biliary tract
Last Answer : B. Intestines
Description : While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Driving motor vehicles
Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug
Last Answer : D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug
Description : Select the H1 antihistaminic which is used topically in the nose for allergic rhinitis: A. Loratadine B. Cetirizine C. Fexofenadine D. Azelastine
Last Answer : D. Azelastine
Description : The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating
Last Answer : B. Vasopressor
Description : The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action
Last Answer : A. High oral bioavailability
Description : Erythromycin should not be given to a patient being treated with terfenadine because: A. Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias ... Terfenadine inhibitis metabolism of erythromycin D. Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobial action of erythromycin
Last Answer : B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur
Description : The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist: A. Buspirone B. Ondansetron C. Sumatriptan D. α-methyl 5-HT
Last Answer : C. Sumatriptan
Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla
Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation
Description : Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist: A. 4-methyl histamine B. Impromidine C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine D. Chlorpheniramine
Last Answer : C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine
Description : Benefit afforded by certain H1 antihistaminics in the following condition is not based on antagonism of histamine: A. Dermographism B. Insect bite C. Common cold D. Seasonal hay fever
Last Answer : C. Common cold
Description : H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in: A. All types of allergic disorders B. Certain type I allergic reactions only C. Certain type IV allergic reactions only D. Bronchial asthma
Last Answer : B. Certain type I allergic reactions only
Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action
Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action
Description : Select the antihistaminic which modulates calcium channels and has prominant labyrinthine suppressant property: A. Cyproheptadine B. Cinnarizine C. Clemastine D. Cetirizine
Last Answer : B. Cinnarizine
Description : The 5-HT antagonist that has antihypertensive property is (a) Methysergide (b) Cyproheptadine (c) Ketanserin (d) Ondansetron
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are more commonly used than colchicine in acute gout because: A. They are more effective B. They act more rapidly C. They have additional uricosuric action D. They are better tolerated
Last Answer : D. They are better tolerated
Description : Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine
Last Answer : C. Astemizole
Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy
Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property
Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response
Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone
Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline
Description : The smooth muscle stimulating action of 5-HT is most marked in the (a) Bronchi (b) Intestines (c) Ureter (d) Billary tract
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Select the H1 antihistaminic which is used topically in the nose for allergic rhinitis (a) Deep intra-abdominal operation (b) Trachial intubation (c) Tetanus (d) Diagonosis of myasthenia gravis
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except (a) Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors (b) Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier (c) Individual susceptibility (d) Ratio of H1 : H2 blockade produced by the drug
Description : The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action
Last Answer : D. Good antipruritic action
Description : Dysmenorrhoea is often associated with excess production of the following autacoid by the endometrium: A. Bradykinin B. Prostaglandin C. Platelet activating factor D. 5-Hydroxytryptamine
Last Answer : B. Prostaglandin
Description : The following serotonergic receptor functions primarily as an autoreceptor on neurones: A. 5-HT1A B. 5-HT2A C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4
Last Answer : A. 5-HT1A
Description : Actions of 5-HT2 receptor activation are primarily mediated by: A. Increased membrane permeability to Na+ ions B. Increased formation of cAMP C. Activation of guanylyl cyclase D. Generation of inositol trisphosphate and diacyl glycerols
Last Answer : D. Generation of inositol trisphosphate and diacyl glycerols
Description : Autacoids differ from hormones in that: A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar
Last Answer : C. Acute gouty arthritis
Description : Allopurinol is indicated in the following category of chronic gout patients: A. Over producers of uric acid B. Under excretors of uric acid C. Those with tophi and/or renal urate stones D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is ... treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment
Last Answer : D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment
Description : Select the drug which is used in chronic gout but is not uricosuric: A. Probenecid B. Phenylbutazone C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Allopurinol
Last Answer : D. Allopurinol
Description : Probenecid has the following action(s): A. Uricosuric B. Analgesic C. Antiinflammatory D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Last Answer : A. Uricosuric
Description : The most important dose-limiting adverse effect of colchicine is: A. Sedation B. Kidney damage C. Diarrhoea D. Muscle paralysis
Last Answer : C. Diarrhoea
Description : Select the drug which is neither analgesic, nor antiinflammatory, nor uricosuric, but is highly efficacious in acute gout: A. Prednisolone B. Colchicine C. Naproxen D. Sulfinpyrazone
Last Answer : B. Colchicine
Description : Select the first choice drug for acute gout: A. Cochicine B. Indomethacin C. Allopurinol D. Dexamethasone
Last Answer : B. Indomethacin
Description : What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended
Last Answer : A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy
Description : Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs are indicated in rheumatoid arthritis: A. In place of NSAIDs in patients who donot tolerate the latter B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive ... to afford symptomatic relief D. In all patients irrespective of disease status/ concurrent medication
Last Answer : B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive disease
Description : Sulfasalazine is used in the following disease(s): A. Bacillary dysentery B. Ulcerative colitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct